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AP prep — taught by PhD and Master's teachers who are specialists in their field

AP (Advanced Placement) courses are college-level courses from College Board for high-school students. High AP scores strengthen an application and can be converted into college credit.

  • Scored 1–5 · exams in May
  • 9 subjects with group classes
  • Students scoring 5/5

Real scores · Real teachers · Real results — teachers hold at least IELTS 8.0 or SAT 1500, and international programmes are taught by PhD and Master's holders.

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What is AP and why take it

AP (Advanced Placement) is run by the College Board — the organisation behind the SAT: about 40 subjects designed to match first-year university courses, taught at high school level, with exams held worldwide in a single May session and scored on a 1–5 scale. Students at Vietnamese schools can still register for the exams; taking AP classes at school is not required.

The three tests complement each other rather than replace each other: the lower tier is a requirement, the upper tier is what makes an application stand out.
1Shows depth in your major

IELTS shows you can use English, the SAT shows general ability. AP shows you have already completed university-level courses in the very field you plan to study — what admissions committees call course rigor.

2Converts into college credit

Many US universities grant credit or course exemptions for a score of 3, 4 or 5, depending on the university and subject — meaning lower tuition and going straight into higher-level classes. Check each university's policy with the College Board's AP Credit Policy tool.

3Choose your own subjects and schedule

Not a full curriculum like IB or A-Level: choose the right 2–9 subjects for your major, spread across Grades 10, 11 and 12.

4One common standard for every school

An AP Calculus 5 in Ho Chi Minh City and in Boston is scored with the same rubric by the same panel — universities can compare students from education systems they are not familiar with.

Compared with IELTS / TOEFL and SAT

IELTS / TOEFLSATAP
What it measuresEnglish · 4 skillsReading – Writing and high school MathUniversity first-year knowledge in each subject
Role in the applicationLanguage requirement — reach the level your university requiresCompares general ability across studentsShows depth in your major and course rigor, and can earn college credit
Score scaleIELTS 0–9 · TOEFL iBT 1–6 (from January 2026, alongside the 0–120 scale during the transition)400–16001–5 for each subject
Exam datesAlmost year-roundSeveral sittings a yearOne sitting a year, in May
Best time to take itGrades 10–11Grades 11–12Spread across Grades 10–12, a few subjects each year

Videos from 8020 classes

Clips from real 8020 classes and lessons — click to watch right here.

More on the 8020 EDUCATION YouTube channel ↗

AP scores, credit and awards

Each subject is scored on a 1–5 scale. The multiple-choice section is machine-scored, and the free-response section is scored by readers using the scoring guidelines; the two sections are weighted and converted to a 1–5 score. The conversion cut-offs change every year and the College Board does not publish them in advance.

5
Extremely well qualifiedExtremely well qualified — prepared beyond the standard of a university course
Equivalent to A+ or A in a university course
4
Very well qualifiedVery well qualified — well prepared for a university course
Equivalent to A-, B+ or B in a university course
3
QualifiedQualified — capable of the corresponding university course
Equivalent to B-, C+ or C in a university course
2
Possibly qualifiedAchievable — but not enough evidence yet
1
No recommendationNot recommended

Score meanings from the College Board's AP Score Scale Table (sources). Nhiều trường Mỹ cấp tín chỉ/miễn môn từ điểm 3 trở lên, nhưng mỗi trường tự quyết. Calculus BC (có subscore AB) và Music Theory có 'special score structure'.

Percentage scoring 5 and scoring 3 or above — 2026 exam

Calculus BC
46%82.0%
Precalculus
29%82.0%
Computer Science A
25%66.0%
Physics C: Electricity and Magnetism
24%75.0%
United States Government and Politics
23%76.0%
Calculus AB
20%65.0%
Physics 2: Algebra-Based
20%72.0%
Physics C: Mechanics
20%72.0%
Physics 1: Algebra-Based
19%68.0%
Microeconomics
19%68.0%
Macroeconomics
19%66.0%
Human Geography
19%66.0%
Statistics
17%62.0%
English Literature and Composition
16%73.0%
Biology
15%71.0%
Chemistry
15%76.0%
Psychology
15%74.0%
English Language and Composition
15%75.0%
United States History
14%74.0%
World History: Modern
14%66.0%
Environmental Science
13%69.0%
Computer Science Principles
10%63.0%

score of 5   scored 3 or above · Source: College Board — 2026 AP Score Distributions. Click each subject in the Subjects section to see all 5 score levels.

What AP scores are used for

Credit and course exemptions

The official tool to look up each university's credit and placement policy; each university sets its own minimum score.

AP Credit Policy Search ↗

Recognised outside the US

According to the College Board, AP is recognised by more than 500 universities in over 75 countries — including the UK, Canada and Australia — for admission, placement, credit or scholarships.

Look up universities outside the US that recognise AP ↗

AP Scholar awards

  • AP Scholar — Score ≥3 on at least 3 AP exams
  • AP Scholar with Honor — Average score ≥3.25 on all exams taken AND ≥3 on at least 4 exams
  • AP Scholar with Distinction — Average score ≥3.5 on all exams taken AND ≥3 on at least 5 exams

The College Board has discontinued the National / International AP Scholar awards.

Source ↗

AP Capstone Diploma

  • AP Capstone Diploma — Score ≥3 on AP Seminar AND AP Research AND on 4 other AP exams of your choice
  • AP Seminar and Research Certificate — Score ≥3 on both AP Seminar and AP Research

AP Seminar là điều kiện tiên quyết của AP Research (trang môn AP Research: phải hoàn thành AP Seminar); chỉ trường tham gia chương trình AP Capstone mới cấp được giải này.

Source ↗

AP International Diploma (APID) — for students outside the US

  • Score ≥3 on at least 5 AP exams (retakes count once, using the highest score)
  • Attend a school outside the US (outside US territories and DoDEA) OR send AP scores to a university outside the US
  • Content Area 1: 2 language exams (a modern World Language or English; Latin does NOT count in this area) in 2 different languages — e.g. Chinese + English Lang; English Lang + English Lit, or Spanish Lang + Spanish Lit, are NOT accepted. From 1 Oct 2025, letters of proficiency are no longer accepted in place of an AP exam
  • Content Area 2: 1 exam with a global perspective — Art History, Business with Personal Finance (from 2026–27), Comparative Government and Politics, Environmental Science, Human Geography, Macroeconomics, World History: Modern
  • Content Area 3: 1 Math–Computer Science or Science exam (Calculus AB/BC, CSA, CSP, Cybersecurity (from 2026–27; Cybersecurity/Networking pilot 2025–26), Precalculus, Statistics, Biology, Chemistry, Environmental Science, the Physics subjects, Psychology)
  • Content Area 4: 1 additional exam of any kind except English and World Languages (Latin counts) — including Seminar, Research, the Arts subjects, History & Social Sciences, Math/CS, Sciences

Tự động cấp, không cần đăng ký; không thay thế bằng tốt nghiệp THPT; Vietnam thuộc diện 'trường ngoài Mỹ'.

Source ↗

AP exam schedule, fees and rules

One exam session per year in the first two weeks of May; morning session at 8:00 and afternoon session at 12:00 local time. Schedule, fees and rules follow College Board's official announcements.

Taking AP in Vietnam — May 2027 exams

The College Board authorises IIG Vietnam to administer AP exams in Hanoi, Ho Chi Minh City and Da Nang. Students whose school does not have an AP code register for exams through IIG.

Fees at IIG

Registration round 1 · 15 Sep – 6 Nov 2026VND 5,250,000 / exam
Registration round 2 · 16 Nov 2026 – 5 Mar 2027VND 6,320,000 / exam
Late testing (for circumstances beyond your control; register before 4 May 2027)+VND 1,340,000 / exam

Refunds: cancel before 11:59 pm on 6 Nov 2026 for a 100% refund; from then until 5 Mar 2027 for a 50% refund; no refund after that. Deadlines are not extended.

Bring your original passport or citizen ID card (copies not accepted). Students bring their own laptop/iPad meeting Bluebook requirements; world language exams require a laptop with a USB port for the IIG-provided headset.

Admission tickets and test locations are emailed before 26 Apr 2027.

Registration steps

  1. 1Register and pay on the online.iigvietnam.com portal — receive each exam's join code by email.
  2. 2Sign in to My AP (myap.collegeboard.org) and enter the join code for your testing region to register for each exam; note down your AP ID.
  3. 3Add your AP ID to your IIG account. Your full name, date of birth and email must match on both — miss one step and you cannot sit the exam.

27 subjects offered by IIG

Biology · Business with Personal Finance · Calculus AB · Calculus BC · Chemistry · Chinese · Computer Science A · Computer Science Principles · Cybersecurity · English Language · English Literature · Environmental Science · French · German · Human Geography · Japanese · Macroeconomics · Microeconomics · Physics 1 · Physics 2 · Physics C: Mechanics · Physics C: E&M · Precalculus · Psychology · Statistics · US History · World History: Modern

Subjects IIG does not offer (US Government, Comparative Government, European History, African American Studies, Art History, Music Theory, Latin, Spanish, Italian, Seminar, Research, Art and Design) must be taken through an international school with an AP code that accepts outside students — ask 8020 for guidance.

Source: IIG Vietnam's announcement for the 2026–2027 AP exams

AP exam schedules by year

DateMorning session · 8:00Afternoon session · 12:00
Monday 3 MayHuman Geography · Physics C: MechanicsBiology · Italian Language and Culture
Tuesday 4 MayBusiness with Personal Finance · United States Government and PoliticsEuropean History · Microeconomics
Wednesday 5 MayCybersecurity · English Literature and CompositionPhysics 1: Algebra-Based · Physics C: Electricity and Magnetism
Thursday 6 MayFrench Language and Culture · Physics 2: Algebra-Based · World History: ModernAfrican American Studies · Chemistry
Friday 7 MayGerman Language and Culture · United States HistoryMacroeconomics · Networking (pilot schools)
Monday 10 MayCalculus AB · Calculus BCMusic Theory · Seminar
Tuesday 11 MayJapanese Language and Culture · PrecalculusStatistics
Wednesday 12 MayEnglish Language and CompositionArt History · Computer Science A
Thursday 13 MaySpanish Language and CultureChinese Language and Culture · Environmental Science
Friday 14 MayComparative Government and Politics · Computer Science Principles · Spanish Literature and CultureLatin · Psychology
Monday 17 May · late testingEnglish Literature and Composition · European History · Networking (pilot schools)Business with Personal Finance · French Language and Culture · Human Geography
Tuesday 18 May · late testingArt History · Italian Language and Culture · Seminar · United States Government and PoliticsCybersecurity · Japanese Language and Culture · United States History · World History: Modern
Wednesday 19 May · late testingAfrican American Studies · Biology · Microeconomics · Music Theory · Physics 1: Algebra-BasedSpanish Language and Culture · Spanish Literature and Culture
Thursday 20 May · late testingChemistry · Computer Science A · Environmental Science · Latin · Physics C: Electricity and Magnetism · PrecalculusCalculus AB · Calculus BC · Comparative Government and Politics · German Language and Culture · Physics C: Mechanics
Friday 21 May · late testingChinese Language and Culture · English Language and Composition · Macroeconomics · Psychology · StatisticsComputer Science Principles · Physics 2: Algebra-Based

Two main exam weeks: 3–7 May 2027 and 10–14 May 2027; late-testing week (alternate exams): 17–21 May 2027.

From 2027 College Board calls the two sessions Session 1 / Session 2 and sets times by time zone; in Vietnam (UTC+7) they remain 8:00 and 12:00.

Two subjects examined for the first time in 2027: AP Business with Personal Finance and AP Cybersecurity.

Submission/portfolio deadlines: AP Art and Design: 7 May 2027, 11:59 pm ET (submit the 3 portfolio components as final) · AP Computer Science Principles: 30 Apr 2027, 11:59 pm ET (Create performance task) · AP Seminar and AP Research: 30 Apr 2027, 11:59 pm ET (performance tasks) · AP World Languages and Cultures (NEW): 30 Apr 2027, 11:59 pm ET (Personalized Project Reference – PPR)

Score release: July 2027 (the AP Students calendar only says 'July 2027'; the exact date has not been announced).

Exam fees (College Board)

Item2026–27 school year (May 2027 exams)2025–26 school year
Exam fee per subject — outside the US (including Vietnam)129 USD129 USD
Exam fee per subject — US, Canada, DoDEA schools99 USD99 USD
AP Seminar, AP ResearchSame as a regular courseSame as a regular course
Late order+40 USD/subject · ordered from 14 Nov 2026 to 12 Mar 2027+40 USD/subject · 15 Nov 2025 – 13 Mar 2026
Ordered, then cancelled or not taken40 USD/subject (instead of the exam fee)40 USD/subject
Late testing40 USD/subject — most reasons (schedule conflicts, illness…) are exempt40 USD/subject — most reasons are exempt
Fee reduction for students with financial need37 USD/subject off37 USD/subject off
Sending scores to 1 universityFree if selected before 20 Jun 2027Free if selected before 20 Jun 2026
Additional score sends15 USD/report15 USD/report
Withholding a score from one university10 USD/score/university10 USD/score/university
Score cancellationFree (permanent deletion)Free

The College Board's fee schedule. Authorised test centres outside the US (such as IIG in Vietnam) may charge additional administration costs — the amount actually payable is announced by the test centre.

Rules you need to know

Register through a school with AP classes
  • Students in an AP class: get the 6-character join code from your teacher → sign in to My AP (College Board account) → Join a Course or Exam → enter registration details → (if your school requires it) click Register for the Exam. The coordinator orders exams and collects fees; you do not pay on the College Board website.
  • You cannot order an exam directly with the College Board. Find a school that administers exams (search the AP Course Ledger, call the AP coordinator) to have an 'exam only section' created and receive a join code; or test at an authorised test center (outside the US). Schools may accept additional students after the November deadline and request a late-order fee waiver, at their discretion.
Registration deadlines for the 2026–27 school year
  • On-time exam ordering deadline: 13 Nov 2026 (11:59 pm US Eastern Time).
  • Late ordering: 14 Nov 2026 – 12 Mar 2027, plus USD 40 per exam.
  • This is the deadline for schools/test centers to submit to College Board — test centers set their own EARLIER deadlines (IIG: round 1 until 6 Nov 2026).
  • Requesting accommodations (SSD): deadline 22 Jan 2027.
Exam day: what to bring
  • Device with Bluebook installed, fully charged (enough for 4 hours) + charging cable/power bank (kept on the desk for the proctor to check, not shared) — if the school does not provide a device
  • Remember your College Board account to sign in to Bluebook (passwords saved on the device cannot be used)
  • Government- or school-issued photo ID if you do not attend the school administering the exam (original, with name, signature and photo — e.g. passport, ID card/citizen ID card, driver's licence, student card with photo; digital IDs are NOT accepted). At IIG Vietnam: only an original passport or citizen ID card (for Vietnamese nationals) is accepted, no copies.
  • Pens: for fully digital exams bring a pencil or pen for notes on the scratch paper provided by the school; for hybrid exams bring 2 No. 2 pencils (with erasers) or black/dark blue ink pens to write free responses in the booklet
  • Up to 2 approved calculators for subjects that allow them (in addition to the Desmos calculator built into Bluebook)
  • Rulers/straightedges for Physics only
  • External keyboard: REQUIRED for fully digital exams on a tablet/iPad; recommended (not required) for hybrid exams on a tablet; NOT ALLOWED on a laptop. External mouse optional (Bluetooth allowed)
  • Wired headphones for world language/Music Theory exams if the coordinator requires them
  • A regular watch (no smartwatch, no alarm)
  • SSD approval letter if you have accommodations
Exam day: prohibited items
  • All electronic devices other than the testing device: phones, smartwatches, smart glasses, wearables, other laptops/tablets, audio/photo recorders, timers, headphones/earbuds
  • Stylus, Apple Pencil
  • Books, notebooks, notes, dictionaries, highlighters, mechanical pencils, rulers (except Physics), protractors, your own scratch paper
  • Food/drinks in the room (you may step out for water/a snack during the 10-minute break between the 2 sections when the proctor allows)
  • Clothing with subject-related content; hats (except for medical/religious reasons that don't cover the eyes or ears)
  • Privacy screens, external monitors, clipboard, virtual machines/remote desktop
  • You may be dismissed from the room, have your devices confiscated, have your scores cancelled, and be barred from retesting.
Calculators by subject (2027 exam)
  • Calculus AB/BC, Precalculus: graphing calculator — required in Part B of the MCQ and Part A of the FRQ; no calculator for the rest. Desmos is available only in the calculator-required parts.
  • Statistics: graphing calculator with statistical functions; NEW for 2027: non-graphing calculators prohibited.
  • Chemistry: scientific or graphing (4-function allowed but not recommended)
  • Physics 1, 2, C: Mechanics, C: E&M: 4-function, scientific or graphing
  • Biology, Environmental Science: 4-function (with square root) or non-graphing scientific; NEW for 2027: calculators with memory such as graphing calculators are banned
  • Macroeconomics, Microeconomics, Business with Personal Finance: 4-function only
  • Other subjects (including CS A, CSP): no calculator allowed
Testing in Bluebook
  • From 2027 all AP exams are digital. Fully digital (everything in Bluebook): most social science, English and world language subjects (new in 2027), Statistics (new in 2027), CS A, CSP, Seminar, Art History, Environmental Science… Hybrid (MCQ in Bluebook, FRQ handwritten in a booklet): Biology, Calculus AB/BC, Chemistry, Macro, Micro, Music Theory (new in 2027), Physics 1/2/C, Precalculus. Art and Design and Research are submitted via AP Digital Portfolio.
  • Windows 11 24H2+ (no S mode, no Windows 11 SE), macOS 15+, iPadOS 18+, Chromebooks only if school-managed (ChromeOS 144+, no ChromeOS Flex). RAM ≥2GB (Chromebook 1GB), free storage ≥1GB (iPad 250MB). Laptop screen ≥10 inches, tablet ≥8 inches. Battery ≥4 hours. No virtual machines/remote access.
  • Download Bluebook (bluebook.collegeboard.org) — if it is a school device, the school installs it. Check that your upcoming exam appears under 'Your Tests'; in April, complete the test preview in 'Practice and Prepare'. On exam day: connect to the test site's Wi-Fi, sign in, check in within the app and enter the start code given by the proctor.
Late arrival, exam security, violations
  • Schools are NOT required to admit late arrivals. You may be admitted only if the reason is beyond your control AND (for Bluebook exams) the proctor has not yet started reading the script in the Test Day Toolkit. After that point: no admission; you may ask the coordinator to arrange late testing (at the school's discretion). The testing room door closes exactly at the start time.
  • Never disclose multiple-choice content. FRQs may only be discussed after the College Board posts them online (2 days after the exam date, per the AP Coordinator's Manual); late-testing FRQs may never be discussed. Posting on social media during the exam or mentioning unreleased exam content → score cancellation, no retest, and a possible ban.
  • Score cancellation; you may be banned from College Board exams (AP, SAT, CLEP); the College Board may share information (including the names of banned candidates) with interested high schools and universities. To appeal: give written notice of your intent within 20 business days of receiving the notification email (Terms and Conditions 2026).
Scores: viewing, sending, canceling, withholding
  • July, in your College Board account (AP Scores, apstudents.collegeboard.org/view-scores). 2025: 7 Jul; 2026: 6 Jul; 2027: 'July' (no date yet). Scale 1–5.
  • 1 free university/scholarship programme per exam year, chosen by 20 June 11:59 pm ET (2027: 20 June 2027); the university receives it around early July.
  • 15 USD/report, sent online at any time after scores are released; the report includes ALL AP scores from every year except those cancelled/withheld.
  • Yes, free of charge, permanently deleted. To stop a score from going to your free score-send recipient, College Board must receive the request by 15 Jun of the exam year (2027: 15 Jun 2027).
  • 10 USD/score/university; scores are not deleted, and the hold can be released free of charge.
  • Only the multiple-choice section of paper exams can be rescored by hand (30 USD, deadline 31 Oct); FRQs cannot be reviewed.
Retakes, homeschooling, accommodations
  • Only 1 exam session per year (May); to retake, you take it the following year, with no limit on retakes. Score reports show every attempt unless cancelled/withheld. You may take several subjects in one year; if 2 subjects are scheduled at the same time, register for both and take one in the late-testing week (no extra fee). Note for IIG Vietnam: two regular exams at the same date and time are not accepted (choose one and take the other next year or elsewhere); you cannot register for the same exam twice in a year; you cannot take both Calculus AB and BC in the same year.
  • Yes. College Board recommends taking the AP course but does not require it; self-study/homeschooled students register through a school that offers the exam (exam only section) or an authorized test center. Some subjects have specific requirements via AP Digital Portfolio (CSP, Seminar, Art and Design, Research, world languages with a PPR from 2027) — check with the coordinator. The IIG page states that AP CSP requires taking the course in the same year.
  • Through the SSD office (Services for Students with Disabilities): the school's SSD coordinator submits the request online (or you submit it yourself with the PDF form). 2026-27 deadline: 22 Jan 2027. Accommodations: extended time, extra breaks, large-print/braille exams, a reader, a scribe, magnifiers… Accommodations already approved for the SAT/PSAT don't need to be requested again; they remain valid until 1 year after high school graduation. Testing with unapproved accommodations → scores cancelled. Bring your SSD approval letter to the testing room.
Official sources (33 pages)

Choosing AP subjects by field of study

Each student should take 2 to 9 AP subjects across Grades 10, 11 and 12. Grade 10 takes 1–2 introductory subjects, Grade 11 is the year for core subjects in your major, and Grade 12 adds advanced subjects. Scores from the May exam in Grade 12 arrive after US applications are submitted, but are still used for college credit and to meet conditional offers from UK universities.

Compact2–3 subjects

Core subjects only — for students busy with their school curriculum

Criterion4–6 subjects

Core + supporting subjects — the typical level for a US study-abroad application

Strong application7–9 subjects

Aiming for top universities, adding advanced subjects in Grade 12

Calculus and calculus-based Physics are the first things engineering schools look at.

Core 6 subjects to take first · full plan of 9 subjects. Click a subject name to see its exam structure and rubric.

Suggestions from the 8020 academic team based on common entry requirements for each field — each university may differ; your advising teacher will adjust them to the schools you are targeting.

All AP subjects — exam structure, scoring rubrics and official exams

Click each subject to see the exam structure, free-response question types, the rubric for each scoring row, score distributions, and released College Board exams with scoring guidelines and sample responses.

Math & Computer Science 6 subjects

AP PrecalculusHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamPrecalculus2 hours 55 minutes (from May 2027; the May 2026 exam was 3 hours) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 29% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice — Part ANo calculator.2965 minutes43,75%
Section I: Multiple Choice — Part BA graphing calculator is needed for some questions.1340 minutes18,75%
Section II: Free Response — Part AGraphing calculator required. Q1 Function Concepts; Q2 Modeling a Non-Periodic Context.235 minutes18,75%
Section II: Free Response — Part BNo calculator. Q3 Modeling a Periodic Context; Q4 Symbolic Manipulations.235 minutes18,75%

Hybrid digital (May 2027 exam): MCQ and FRQ prompts in Bluebook, with FRQ solutions handwritten in a paper booklet.

A graphing calculator (in radian mode) is required in MCQ Part B and FRQ Part A; calculators are banned in MCQ Part A and FRQ Part B. No formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Q1 Function Concepts1 questions · 6Composite functions, values/graphs, limits, invertibility; 3 parts A/B/C, 2 points each.
  • Q2 Modeling a Non-Periodic Context1 questions · 6Build models (exponential, polynomial…) from real-world data; the structure of Q2 is revised from May 2027.
  • Q3 Modeling a Periodic Context1 questions · 6Sinusoidal models: amplitude, midline, period, phase; rate-of-change properties.
  • Q4 Symbolic Manipulations1 questions · 6Exponential/logarithmic/trigonometric manipulation and solving equations without a calculator; answers must be in exact form.

Rubric — Each FRQ — 6 points (A1–A2, B1–B2, C1–C2)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Value / Answer0–1 per pointCorrect answer; when a question asks you to 'show the work', intermediate steps (e.g. f(2) or g(5)) are required to earn the point.
Decimal presentation errordeducted once per questionDecimal answers must be correct to 3 decimal places; the first decimal presentation error in a question loses a point, later errors in the same question are not penalized again.
Reasoning / Limit notation0–1Reasoning must rely on properties of the function and specific points/values; limit notation must have all 4 parts (lim, x→a±, function name, value). A bare 'f is one-to-one' is not enough.
Partial credit1 trong 2Earning no points on a part can still earn 1 point if one criterion in each column of the partial credit table is met at the same time.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Points are often lost by not giving decimals to 3 places as the Part A instructions require, and by imprecise notation (linking unequal expressions with '=').
  • Weak on limit notation and composite functions across representations (graphs, tables, formulas); swapping the roles of input/output when working with inverse functions.
  • Q4: practise manipulating exponential/log/trig expressions without a calculator and show all steps; read the specific instructions for FRQ 4 beforehand. (Source: Chief Reader Report 2025 — the 2026 report has not been published.)
Recent changes
  • 5/2027: MCQ Part A 28→29 questions, 80→65 min; Part B 12→13 questions (still 40 min); each FRQ part 30→35 min; FRQ Q2 structure changes (B(iii) removed, C expanded). Course content unchanged.
  • 2024: First AP Precalculus exam (May 2024); the course launched in 2023-24.

Score distribution 2026

5: 29% · 4: 29% · 3: 24% · 2: 11% · 1: 7%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Calculus AB8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamCalculus AB3 hours 10 minutes (from May 2027; the May 2026 exam was 3 hours 15 minutes) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 20% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice — Part ANo calculator.2962 minutes35%
Section I: Multiple Choice — Part BA graphing calculator is needed for some questions.1338 minutes15%
Section II: Free Response — Part AGraphing calculator required.230 minutes16,7%
Section II: Free Response — Part BNo calculator. (Section II as a whole has at least 2 questions set in real-world contexts.)460 minutes33,3%

Hybrid digital (May 2027): MCQ and FRQ prompts in Bluebook, with FRQ solutions handwritten in a paper booklet.

A graphing calculator is required for MCQ Part B (some questions) and FRQ Part A; prohibited in MCQ Part A and FRQ Part B. No formula sheet. Calculator-based solutions must still show the setup (e.g. the integral) in mathematical notation.

Free-response question types

  • Free Response (Q1–Q6)6 questions · 96 questions × 9 points = 54 raw points. On the 2025 and 2026 exams, Q1, Q3 and Q4 were shared with BC; Q2, Q5 and Q6 were AB-only. A mix of procedural and conceptual questions, with multiple representations (tables, graphs, formulas).

Rubric — Each FRQ — 9 points (scored by points P1…P9)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Answer with setup / supporting work0–1 per pointA correct answer MUST come with the expression/work leading to it; an unsupported bare answer usually loses the setup point and sometimes the answer point too.
Decimal / roundingat most 1 deducted per questionDecimal answers must be correct to 3 decimal places (rounded or truncated); at most 1 point per question is lost for incorrect rounding. Answers do not need to be simplified.
Justification / Reasoning (e.g. IVT, MVT, finding extrema)0–1State all the conditions of the theorem (e.g. 'differentiable ⇒ continuous' before using the IVT) and tie them to the specific data; just writing 'yes, IVT' earns no credit. If you name a theorem, it must be the correct one.
Interpretation / Units0–1Interpreting the meaning of an integral/derivative in context requires the quantity + the time interval; correct units (e.g. birds per day per day) earn 1 separate point when the question asks for them.
Banking—Once the correct expression is written (e.g. a Riemann sum in the correct form), the point is 'banked' — later simplification errors do not lose the answer point.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Calculator questions: choose the right function to integrate/differentiate (e.g. the average value of C requires integrating C(t), not C′(t)).
  • Use the given function names (f, g) instead of copying out long expressions — fewer errors; write derivatives with full brackets.
  • Reasoning must be tied to the specific graph/data and cover the entire interval given; vague phrases like 'the graph' or 'the slope' usually earn no credit. (Source: Chief Reader Report 2025 AB/BC — the 2026 report has not been published.)
Recent changes
  • 5/2027: MCQ Part A 30→29 questions (60→62 min), Part B 15→13 questions (45→38 min): total MCQ 45→42 questions. FRQ unchanged. Course content unchanged (CED Effective Fall 2020 + Clarifications Fall 2026).

Score distribution 2026

5: 20% · 4: 28% · 3: 17% · 2: 24% · 1: 11%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Calculus BCHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamCalculus BC (advanced)3 hours 10 minutes (from May 2027; the May 2026 exam was 3 hours 15 minutes) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 46% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice — Part ANo calculator.2962 minutes35%
Section I: Multiple Choice — Part BA graphing calculator is needed for some questions.1338 minutes15%
Section II: Free Response — Part AGraphing calculator required.230 minutes16,7%
Section II: Free Response — Part BNo calculator. (Section II as a whole has at least 2 questions set in real-world contexts.)460 minutes33,3%

Hybrid digital (May 2027): MCQ and FRQ prompts in Bluebook, with FRQ solutions handwritten in a paper booklet.

A graphing calculator is required for MCQ Part B (some questions) and FRQ Part A; prohibited in MCQ Part A and FRQ Part B. No formula sheet. Calculator-based solutions must still show the setup (e.g. the integral) in mathematical notation.

Free-response question types

  • Free Response (Q1–Q6)6 questions · 96 questions × 9 points = 54 raw points. On the 2025 and 2026 exams, Q1, Q3 and Q4 were shared with AB; Q2, Q5 and Q6 were BC-only (series, parametric/vector/polar…). A mix of procedural and conceptual questions, with multiple representations (tables, graphs, formulas).

Rubric — Each FRQ — 9 points (scored by points P1…P9)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Answer with setup / supporting work0–1 per pointA correct answer MUST come with the expression/work leading to it; an unsupported bare answer usually loses the setup point and sometimes the answer point too.
Decimal / roundingat most 1 deducted per questionDecimal answers must be correct to 3 decimal places (rounded or truncated); at most 1 point per question is lost for incorrect rounding. Answers do not need to be simplified.
Justification / Reasoning (e.g. IVT, MVT, finding extrema)0–1State all the conditions of the theorem (e.g. 'differentiable ⇒ continuous' before using the IVT) and tie them to the specific data; just writing 'yes, IVT' earns no credit. If you name a theorem, it must be the correct one.
Interpretation / Units0–1Interpreting the meaning of an integral/derivative in context requires the quantity + the time interval; correct units (e.g. birds per day per day) earn 1 separate point when the question asks for them.
Banking—Once the correct expression is written (e.g. a Riemann sum in the correct form), the point is 'banked' — later simplification errors do not lose the answer point.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Calculator questions: choose the right function to integrate/differentiate (e.g. the average value of C requires integrating C(t), not C′(t)).
  • Use the given function names (f, g) instead of copying out long expressions — fewer errors; write derivatives with full brackets.
  • Reasoning must be tied to the specific graph/data and cover the entire interval given; vague phrases like 'the graph' or 'the slope' usually earn no credit. (Source: Chief Reader Report 2025 AB/BC — the 2026 report has not been published.)
Recent changes
  • 5/2027: MCQ Part A 30→29 questions (60→62 min), Part B 15→13 questions (45→38 min): total MCQ 45→42 questions. FRQ unchanged. Course content unchanged (CED Effective Fall 2020 + Clarifications Fall 2026).

Score distribution 2026

5: 46% · 4: 22% · 3: 14% · 2: 14% · 1: 4%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Statistics8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamStatistics3 hours · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 17% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice4 options per question (previously 5). There are 2 sets of 3 questions: one on probability/random variables/distributions, one on regression. Covers 5 units and 4 practices.4290 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response4 questions × 10 points: Q1 Practices 1–2 (asking questions, collecting data); Q2 Practices 3–4 (analysis, interpretation); Q3 Inference (a significance test or confidence interval); Q4 multi-topic, Practices 2–4.490 minutes50%

Fully in Bluebook from May 2027 (MCQ + FRQ typed in Bluebook, no paper booklet). The May 2026 exam is still hybrid (FRQ handwritten).

Handheld graphing calculators with statistical functions and the Desmos calculator built into Bluebook are allowed. Formula sheets + tables are provided (on paper and in Bluebook); scratch paper is provided.

Free-response question types

  • Q1 Multi-Focus on Practices 1 and 21 questions · 10Formulate Questions + Collect Data (study design, sampling).
  • Q2 Multi-Focus on Practices 3 and 41 questions · 10Analyze Data + Interpret Results.
  • Q3 Inference1 questions · 10A significance test or confidence interval, the complete procedure.
  • Q4 Multi-Focus on Practices 2, 3, and 41 questions · 10Combines several content areas.

Rubric — FRQ Inference (Hypothesis Test) — 10 points (CED 2026-27 sample, each point scored 0–1)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Identify Variable0–1Correctly identifies the explanatory and response variables in context.
Classify Variable0–1Correctly classifies variables as categorical or quantitative.
Identify Procedure0–1Name the full procedure correctly (e.g. two-sample z-test for the difference between two population proportions) or give the correct formula; a generic name like 'two-sample z-test' is not enough.
Hypotheses0–1Correct H0 and Ha, written in terms of population parameters.
Parameter or Population0–1Correctly identifies the parameter as the POPULATION proportion (or mean), in context; defining it as the sample proportion earns no credit.
Randomization and 10% Conditions0–1Argue specifically why the random condition (and the 10% condition if sampling) is met, tied to how the data were collected in the question; just writing "random check" earns no credit.
Normality or Expected Counts Conditions0–1Check the correct conditions (number of successes/failures ≥ 10 in each sample); checking an inappropriate condition (n > 30, citing the CLT) earns no point.
Test Statistics and p-Value0–1Correctly calculates the test statistic and p-value.
p-Value to the Level of Significance Comparison0–1Compare the specific p-value with the significance level α (state both values) and give a formal decision about H0 (reject/fail to reject).
Justification0–1Concludes whether or not there is convincing evidence, in context, based on the calculated result.

Rubric — May 2026 exam (old format) — each FRQ 4 points, scored holistically E/P/I

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Essentially correct (E) / Partially correct (P) / Incorrect (I)by partEach lettered part is rated E, P or I according to the number of components achieved; these combine into a score of 0–4 (Complete 4, Substantial 3, Developing 2, Minimal 1).
The Chief Reader notes
  • Significance tests: define the parameter fully in context, name the procedure in words, write 'random sample' rather than just 'random', and give both the test statistic AND the p-value.
  • Describe/compare distributions: compare center and variability directly, in context; do not infer the number of peaks (modality) from a boxplot.
  • Missing statistical terminology for sampling bias (nonrandom, convenience…); answers must be tied specifically to the context of the question. (Source: Chief Reader Report 2025 — the 2026 report has not been published.)
Recent changes
  • 2026-27 (thi 5/2027): Major course revision: Units 1–8 consolidated into 5 units; the Algebra 2 prerequisite removed; investigative questions added; departures from linearity, combining random variables, the geometric distribution, chi-square goodness of fit and inference for slopes (Unit 9) removed.
  • 5/2027: Exam: fully in Bluebook; MCQ 40→42 questions, 5→4 answer choices; FRQ 6 questions × 4 points (including the Investigative Task) → 4 questions × 10 points, scored point by point.

Score distribution 2026

5: 17% · 4: 23% · 3: 22% · 2: 17% · 1: 21%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Computer Science AHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamJava programming3 hours · Testing in Bluebook · 25% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceMostly discrete questions, occasionally 1–2 sets of 2 questions; assesses all 5 Computational Thinking Practices (reading code, finding output, analysing errors/equivalence).4290 minutes55%
Section II: Free ResponseWrite Java code (Practice 2: Develop Code).490 minutes45%

Fully in Bluebook (MCQ + typing FRQ code in Bluebook).

No calculator. A Java Quick Reference is provided (in Bluebook; a printed copy is also sent to schools).

Free-response question types

  • Q1 Methods and Control Structures1 questions · 7Write 2 methods (or a constructor + a method): Part A loops/conditionals, Part B calls String methods. (2026: A 4 pts + B 3 pts)
  • Q2 Class Design1 questions · 7Design a complete class: header, instance variables, constructor and methods according to a specification table.
  • Q3 Data Analysis with ArrayList1 questions · 5Write 1 method that traverses/processes an ArrayList of objects.
  • Q4 2D Array1 questions · 6Write methods that traverse/create/process 2D arrays.

Rubric — FRQ — 25 raw points in total (7+7+5+6), 1 point per criterion

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Algorithm points1–2 per questionPut together all the necessary steps in the right order; points are lost for missing steps, modifying data that must not be modified, returning in a void method/constructor, or rewriting the header with a different number/type of parameters.
Non-Algorithm points0–1 per criterionEach requirement is scored narrowly (e.g. declaring an instance variable, calling the right method); points are still earned even if there are errors elsewhere.
Errors to Ignore—Minor errors that don't create ambiguity are ignored: missing ; or { } when indentation makes the meaning clear, confusing length/size, misspelled variable names that cause no confusion.
Points lost when—Accessing an ArrayList with [] instead of .get, extraneous code that produces wrong results (e.g. printing to the screen), using ambiguous identifiers.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Practise handwriting complete class/method headers and constructors without an IDE; constructors must initialize every instance variable.
  • String: master substring's include-start, exclude-end convention to know when to use ±1; an ArrayList of objects requires chained method calls (list.get(i).getValue()).
  • Distinguish instance variables from local variables; practise creating/filling 2D arrays and generating random numbers in a range. (Source: Chief Reader Report 2025 — the 2026 report has not been published.)
Recent changes
  • 2025-26 (thi 5/2026): Course revised (CED Effective Fall 2025): consolidated into 4 units (Using Objects and Methods; Selection and Iteration; Class Creation; Data Collections, including the topic Using Text Files). MCQ 42 questions 55%, FRQ 45%; FRQ points change from 4 × 9 = 36 to 7+7+5+6 = 25; Q2 becomes 'Class Design', Q3 becomes 'Data Analysis with ArrayList'.

Score distribution 2026

5: 25% · 4: 26% · 3: 15% · 2: 11% · 1: 23%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Computer Science PrinciplesAvailable at IIG VietnamComputer Science Principles3-hour end-of-course exam (120 minutes MCQ + 60 minutes written response) + 9 hours for the Create task in class · Portfolio submission · 10% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: End-of-Course Multiple Choice4 options: 57 single-select questions; 5 single-select questions based on a reading passage about a computing innovation; 8 questions selecting 2 answers.70120 minutes70%
Section II: Create Performance Task + Written ResponseSubmit program code, a video of the program running and the Personalized Project Reference; on exam day, answer 2 questions (WR1; WR2 with 2(a), 2(b), 2(c)) about your own code.29 hours in class + 60-minute exam30%

Fully in Bluebook (MCQ + 2 written-response questions) + portfolio: Create performance task submitted via AP Digital Portfolio.

No calculator. An Exam Reference Sheet is provided (AP pseudocode language); you may view your own Personalized Project Reference when answering the written response.

Free-response question types

  • Create Performance Task (video + program requirements) + Written Response 11 questions · 3Video of the program running; code meets the requirements; WR1 on design, functionality, purpose/documentation.
  • Written Response 2 (2a, 2b, 2c)1 questions · 32026 exam: algorithms (loop stopping condition), errors & testing (calling a procedure with arguments that cause an error), data abstraction (the role of the list).

Rubric — Create Performance Task + Written Responses — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Course Project: Video0–1The video shows the program RUNNING, with input, functionality and output; screenshots/storyboards are not accepted.
Course Project: Program Requirements0–1Code includes a student-developed procedure + a call to it, a list (≥2 elements) that is actually used, and non-trivial selection and iteration.
Written Response 1: Program Design, Function, and Purpose0–1Describe an appropriate piece of documentation and explain how ANOTHER programmer would use it to understand the code (2026).
Written Response 2(a): Algorithm Development0–1Identify the variable/value that makes the loop stop and explain why, matching the code in the PPR.
Written Response 2(b): Errors and Testing0–1Give a procedure call with specific arguments that causes incorrect behavior, describe the incorrect behavior and explain the cause (or explain why that is not possible).
Written Response 2(c): Data and Procedural Abstraction0–1Explain how the list helps manage complexity AND describe how the code would have to change without the list (or why it would be impossible).
The Chief Reader notes
  • The code in the Personalized Project Reference must contain every component the CED requires (a procedure with a parameter, a list that is used, selection, iteration) — if one is missing, the related written response points are lost too.
  • The video must clearly show where the input comes from while the program runs; a common mistake is a video that only shows visuals with no visible input. If keyboard/file/mouse input does not appear on screen, add captions.
  • WR2(a) Set 1 in 2025 asked about a selection statement: you had to isolate the Boolean expression from the whole statement, give a specific value that makes the expression true, and explain. (Source: Chief Reader Report 2025 Set 1 — the 2026 report has not been published.)
Recent changes
  • 2023-24 (thi 5/2024): CED Effective Fall 2023: 9-hour Create task, submitting code + video + Personalized Project Reference; the pre-submitted written response was removed and replaced by 2 written response questions on the end-of-course exam; weighting 70% MCQ / 30% Create. The 2024 and 2025 exams had 2 sets of written response questions (Set 1, Set 2); 2026 released 1 set.

Score distribution 2026

5: 10% · 4: 23% · 3: 30% · 2: 21% · 1: 16%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

Natural sciences 7 subjects

AP Biology8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamBiology3 hours · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions + question sets based on a shared stimulus (usually 4–5 questions per set).6090 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response2 long questions (9 points each, suggested ~25 minutes each) + 4 short questions (4 points each, ~10 minutes each).690 minutes50%

Hybrid: answer MCQs and view FRQ prompts in Bluebook, handwrite FRQs in a paper booklet (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections. From the 2027 exam: only handheld four-function (with square root) or scientific (non-graphing) calculators, or the Desmos scientific calculator in Bluebook — calculators with memory such as graphing calculators are NOT allowed. Reference Information (formulas, tables) is provided in Bluebook and in print.

Free-response question types

  • Interpreting and Evaluating Experimental Results1 questions · 9Long question: read an experimental design, identify variables/controls, describe and explain data, predict and justify.
  • Interpreting and Evaluating Experimental Results with Graphing1 questions · 9A long question like the above, but you must draw your own graph from a data table (usually a bar graph/line graph with error bars).
  • Scientific Investigation1 questions · 4Short question on experimental design/investigation.
  • Conceptual Analysis1 questions · 4Short question explaining a biological concept in a new situation.
  • Analyze Model or Visual Representation of a Biological Concept or Process1 questions · 4Short question analysing a model/diagram.
  • Analyze Data1 questions · 4Short question analysing data (tables, charts, box-and-whisker…).

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 34 raw points in total (2×9 + 4×4)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Points A1, B1, B2, … (each Point 1 requirement)0–1 per PointEach task in the question (describe, identify, justify, predict…) is a separate Point; the SG lists the acceptable answers.
Graph — construction (Q2)0–1Choose the type of graph the question asks for (e.g. a bar graph).
Graph — plotting (Q2)0–1Data and error bars are plotted accurately.
Graph — labeling (Q2)0–1Axes correctly labelled, with a legend.
Justify / Predict0–1 per PointThe prediction and the reasoning are separate Points; the reasoning must link a biological mechanism to the data/information given, not repeat the prediction.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Practise explaining the experimental design: why each group exists (control, treatment), what the independent/dependent variables are — then interpret what the data mean; explain the role of the control for the specific experiment, not just a generic "for comparison" (2025 report).
  • Part D of the 2 long questions (using data/concepts to support or justify a claim) has the lowest mean score: 2025 Q1 D1 0.14 and D2 0.02 (Q2: D1 0.34; D2 0.21) — you must identify the trend specific to the relevant group and connect it to the biological mechanism, not just restate the data (2025 report).
  • Short questions average only ~1.7–2.0 of 4 points (2025 scoring statistics) — do not neglect the 4 short questions.
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam: hybrid digital in Bluebook (FRQ handwritten in a booklet).
  • CED update effective Fall 2025; the exam framework (60 MCQ + 6 FRQ, 50/50) is unchanged.
  • From the May 2027 exam: handheld calculators with memory (graphing) are prohibited — only 4-function/scientific or the Desmos scientific calculator in Bluebook.

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 25% · 3: 31% · 2: 21% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Chemistry8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamChemistry3 hours 15 minutes · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions or question sets based on a stimulus/data set.6090 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response3 long questions (10 points each, suggested ~23 minutes each) + 4 short questions (4 points each, ~9 minutes each); assesses all 6 science practices.7105 minutes50%

Hybrid: answer MCQs and view FRQ prompts in Bluebook, handwrite FRQs in a paper booklet (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections: handheld scientific or graphing calculators (four-function calculators are allowed but not recommended), or Desmos scientific/graphing in Bluebook. Reference Information is provided: periodic table, equations and constants.

Free-response question types

  • Long Answer3 questions · 10Multi-part questions combining calculations (stoichiometry, equilibrium, thermodynamics, electrochemistry…), particle-level explanations and reading data/graphs.
  • Short Answer4 questions · 4Short questions focus on one topic, usually with a calculation + a brief explanation.

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 46 raw points in total (3×10 + 4×4)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Point 01, 02, … (each Point 1 criterion)0–1 per PointEach sub-part has 1 or more Points (e.g. setup + correct value). The SG lists the accepted answers and phrasings.
Show your work—Calculations must show the method and steps; a final answer alone earns no credit.
Significant figures0–1 (when the question requires it)A separate Point requires the calculated value to have the correct number of significant figures (e.g. 2026 Q1 Point 04).
“Consistent with” (follow-through)per PointPoints in later parts are scored based on results from earlier parts, so an error in an early part can still earn later points if the correct method is used.
The Chief Reader notes
  • (2025 report) Calculating the pH of a basic solution: a common error is calculating the pOH and stopping there, reporting it as the pH.
  • (2025 report) Mixing/dilution: the new concentration must be divided by the total volume after mixing, not the volume of one solution; Coulomb's law: r is the distance between two particles, not the radius of one particle.
  • (2025 report) Understand the substance of comparing Q with K and Le Châtelier (including cases where a common ion is 'removed' with an acid), not just shortcuts; practise reading/plotting points that fall between grid lines on a graph.
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam: hybrid digital in Bluebook (FRQ handwritten in a booklet).
  • The exam framework (60 MCQ/90 minutes + 7 FRQ/105 minutes, 50/50) is unchanged for 2024–2027; the current CED is effective Fall 2024.

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 31% · 3: 30% · 2: 18% · 1: 6%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Environmental ScienceHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamEnvironmental Science2 hours 40 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 13% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions + question sets: 3–5 sets with quantitative data (tables, charts), 3–5 sets with qualitative information (models, maps), 2 text-based sets.8090 minutes60%
Section II: Free Response3 questions, 10 points each, suggested ~22 minutes each; answers are typed in Bluebook.370 minutes40%

Fully digital in Bluebook: both MCQ and FRQ taken in Bluebook, submitted automatically when time is up (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections. Permitted types: handheld four-function (with square root) or scientific (non-graphing) calculators, up to 2, and/or the Desmos scientific calculator in Bluebook. Update for the 2027 exam: handheld calculators with storage capabilities, such as graphing calculators, are NOT allowed. Reference information is available only in Bluebook (not on paper).

Free-response question types

  • Question 1 — Design an investigation1 questions · 10A real environmental scenario with a model/image: identify variables, the scientific question and the control; analyse the problem and propose a solution.
  • Question 2 — Analyze and interpret quantitative data1 questions · 10A scenario with a table/chart/graph: read and interpret the data, propose a solution. (The 2025–2026 questions are titled 'Analyze an Environmental Problem and Propose a Solution'.)
  • Question 3 — Analyze an environmental problem doing calculations1 questions · 10A scenario with data requiring calculations (percent change, rule of 70, dimensional analysis…) and proposing a solution. (The 2026 question is titled 'Analyze an Environmental Problem and Propose a Solution (Doing Calculations)'.)

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 30 raw points in total (3×10)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Point 01–10 (each Point 1 criterion)0–1 per PointEach part A, B, C… is usually 1 Point; the SG lists the accepted answers.
Calculation setup0–1Writes the correct calculation leading to the result (e.g. (4 − 25)/25 × 100) — a separate Point.
Calculated answer0–1Arrives at the correct value; units are not needed unless the question asks for them.
Describe / Explain0–1 per PointDescribe: give the relevant characteristics of the subject asked about; Explain: give the relationship between the relevant variables (usually cause and effect). Write in complete sentences, and give exactly the number of examples the question asks for.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Master the task verbs: describe = state the relevant characteristics; explain = state the relationship between variables, usually as cause and effect. Use precise terminology (e.g. watershed ≠ aquifer) and check spelling (emit ≠ admit). (2025 report)
  • Unit 7 Atmospheric Pollution (sources, types and effects of pollutants) is where many responses lose points. (2025 report)
  • Calculation questions: units are not required to earn the setup point, but answers without units often lose the calculation point; practise dimensional analysis (cancelling units), use brackets in the correct order of operations and show every step. (2025 report)
Recent changes
  • New CED effective Fall 2026 (May 2027 exam): clarifies some Learning Objectives/Essential Knowledge (N and P cycles, food chains…); renames FRQ Q2 to 'Analyze and interpret quantitative data' (Q1 'Design an investigation', Q3 'Analyze an environmental problem doing calculations') and clarifies the science practices assessed in Q1–Q2.
  • From the May 2027 exam: handheld calculators with memory (graphing) are prohibited.

Score distribution 2026

5: 13% · 4: 29% · 3: 27% · 2: 15% · 1: 16%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Physics 1: Algebra-Based8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamPhysics 1 — algebra-based3 hours (MCQ 85 minutes + FRQ 95 minutes) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 19% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions or question sets based on the same stimulus/data set.4285 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response4 questions, one of each type: Mathematical Routines (MR), Translation Between Representations (TBR), Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB), Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT). Suggested timing from the CED (summer 2026 update, applying to the May 2027 exam): MR 20–25 minutes, TBR 25–30 minutes, LAB 25–30 minutes, QQT 15–20 minutes. (2026 exam, FRQ section 100 minutes, suggested ~25 minutes for Q1 and Q3, ~30 minutes for Q2, ~20 minutes for Q4.)495 minutes50%

Hybrid: answer MCQs and view FRQ prompts in Bluebook, handwrite FRQs in a paper booklet (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections: handheld four-function, scientific or graphing calculators, or Desmos (scientific/graphing) in Bluebook. A formula/constants sheet (Table of Information/Equations) is provided in Bluebook and in print. Rulers/straightedges are allowed for the FRQ.

Free-response question types

  • Mathematical Routines (MR)1 questions · 10Set up equations/derivations from first principles, calculate, then reason qualitatively when one variable changes.
  • Translation Between Representations (TBR)1 questions · 12Draw representations (free-body diagrams, energy/momentum bar charts, graphs), write equations and explain the consistency between the representations.
  • Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB)1 questions · 10Describe a measurement procedure with the given equipment, choose quantities to graph to linearize the data, plot points + a best-fit line, and use the slope to determine the required quantity.
  • Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT)1 questions · 8Make a qualitative claim, support it with a derivation, then use the functional dependence of the expression to confirm the claim.

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 40 raw points in total (MR 10 · TBR 12 · LAB 10 · QQT 8)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Points A1, A2, … (each point 1 criterion)0–1 per PointEach Point is a specific criterion (one arrow in the correct direction, one correct starting equation, one correct value…); you earn the Point for each criterion you meet. The Scoring Note for each Point lists the equivalent answers accepted.
Multistep derivation1 Point for the derivation; subsequent Points are scored per component/expressionThe derivation Point is earned only when the work has multiple steps and starts from a correct fundamental equation (e.g. conservation of momentum, Newton's second law in rotational form, kinematics/conservation of energy equations). A correct final expression written on its own (correct, isolated, algebraic equivalent) earns only the Points listed in the Scoring Note (e.g. B2–B3), NOT the derivation Point.
“Consistent with” (follow-through)per PointMany Points are scored for consistency with the answer to an earlier part, so an error in an early part can still earn later points if the reasoning/calculation is correct based on that result.
Functional dependence / justification2 Point (QQT 2026: C1–C2)The first Point only requires an attempt to use functional-dependence language (directly/inversely proportional, numerator/denominator); the later Point requires using it correctly and consistently with the earlier derivation + claim.
Graph (LAB)4 Points for graphing (C1–C4) + 2 Points for using the slope (D1–D2) — 2026 examC1: labels the vertical axis with a quantity (with units) for a linear graph used to find the required quantity; C2: linear scale; C3: plots points correctly for the chosen quantities; C4: best-fit line following the data trend. D1: correctly relates the slope to the required quantity; D2: the calculated value falls within the accepted range.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Practise derivations starting from fundamental principles and write results in terms of the variables given; use the equation sheet to avoid copying equations wrongly (e.g. forgetting a square). (2025 report)
  • LAB question: clearly describe how to measure with the equipment provided and how to reduce error; choose quantities to graph so the graph is linear and show how the slope relates to the required quantity. (2025 report)
  • QQT question: connect the qualitative claim to the mathematical expression through functional dependence; use the correct terms (do not confuse conservation of energy with conservation of momentum). (2025 report)
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam (new CED, effective Fall 2024): new exam format — MCQ 40 questions/80 min (previously 50 questions/90 min), FRQ 4 questions/100 min (previously 5 questions/90 min) in 4 types MR/TBR/LAB/QQT; adds Unit 8 Fluids (moved from Physics 2); new equation sheet.
  • From the May 2025 exam: hybrid digital in Bluebook (FRQ still handwritten in a booklet).
  • From the May 2027 exam (CED Clarifications, effective Fall 2026): MCQ increases from 40 → 42 questions, 80 → 85 min; FRQ decreases from 100 → 95 min. Total still 3 hours.

Score distribution 2026

5: 19% · 4: 24% · 3: 25% · 2: 15% · 1: 17%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Physics 2: Algebra-BasedAvailable at IIG VietnamPhysics 2 — algebra-based3 hours (MCQ 85 minutes + FRQ 95 minutes) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 20% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions or question sets based on the same stimulus/data set.4285 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response4 questions, one of each type: Mathematical Routines (MR), Translation Between Representations (TBR), Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB), Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT). Suggested timing from the CED (summer 2026 update, applying to the May 2027 exam): MR 20–25 minutes, TBR 25–30 minutes, LAB 25–30 minutes, QQT 15–20 minutes. (2026 exam, FRQ section 100 minutes, suggested ~25 minutes for Q1 and Q3, ~30 minutes for Q2, ~20 minutes for Q4.)495 minutes50%

Hybrid: answer MCQs and view FRQ prompts in Bluebook, handwrite FRQs in a paper booklet (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections: handheld four-function, scientific or graphing calculators, or Desmos (scientific/graphing) in Bluebook. A formula/constants sheet (Table of Information/Equations) is provided in Bluebook and in print. Rulers/straightedges are allowed for the FRQ.

Free-response question types

  • Mathematical Routines (MR)1 questions · 10Set up equations/derivations from first principles, calculate, then reason qualitatively when one variable changes.
  • Translation Between Representations (TBR)1 questions · 12Draw representations (free-body diagrams, energy/momentum bar charts, graphs), write equations and explain the consistency between the representations.
  • Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB)1 questions · 10Describe a measurement procedure with the given equipment, choose quantities to graph to linearize the data, plot points + a best-fit line, and use the slope to determine the required quantity.
  • Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT)1 questions · 8Make a qualitative claim, support it with a derivation, then use the functional dependence of the expression to confirm the claim.

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 40 raw points in total (MR 10 · TBR 12 · LAB 10 · QQT 8)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Points A1, A2, … (each point 1 criterion)0–1 per PointEach Point is a specific criterion (one arrow in the correct direction, one correct starting equation, one correct value…); you earn the Point for each criterion you meet. The Scoring Note for each Point lists the equivalent answers accepted.
Multistep derivation1 Point for the derivation; subsequent Points are scored per component/expressionThe derivation Point is earned only when the work has multiple steps and starts from a correct fundamental equation (e.g. PV = nRT, Q = mcΔT, E = hf, conservation of energy/work–energy theorem) or an equivalent. A correct final expression written on its own earns only the Points listed in the Scoring Note (e.g. A4–A5), NOT the derivation Point.
“Consistent with” (follow-through)per PointMany Points are scored for consistency with the answer to an earlier part, so an error in an early part can still earn later points if the reasoning/calculation is correct based on that result.
Functional dependence / claim + justification1–2 Points (2026 exam)2026 exam: MR part B has 1 Point for correctly identifying the functional dependence between quantities in the equation; QQT part C has 1 Point for the claim and 1 Point for a justification consistent with the derivation in part B (with no claim, a consistent justification still earns the justification Point).
Graph (LAB)4 Points for graphing (C1–C4) + 2 Points for using the slope (D1–D2) — 2026 examC1: labels BOTH axes with quantities (with units) for a usable graph; C2: both axes have linear scales; C3: plots points correctly for the labelled quantities; C4: draws a line/curve following the data trend. D1: correctly relates the slope to the equation to calculate the required quantity; D2: the calculated value falls within the accepted range.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Free-body diagrams show only forces, labelled F with clear subscripts (e.g. F_g, F_atm, F_gas) — do not draw pressure (a scalar quantity), and do not label a generic 'applied' force without a clear object exerting it (2025 report).
  • LAB question: you must state how to reduce experimental error (repeated measurements); note that the current in an RC circuit changes over time, so do not use I × t to calculate charge. (2025 report)
  • Master the wavelength–frequency relationship by color of light and path difference in interference; when comparing magnetic forces, consider both current and distance together. (2025 report)
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam (new CED, effective Fall 2024): new exam format — MCQ 40 questions/80 min (previously 50 questions/90 min), FRQ 4 questions/100 min (previously 4 questions/90 min, 2 long and 2 short) in 4 types MR/TBR/LAB/QQT; 7 units numbered 9–15 (Thermodynamics → Modern Physics); Fluids moves to Physics 1.
  • From the May 2025 exam: hybrid digital in Bluebook.
  • From the May 2027 exam: MCQ 40 → 42 questions, 80 → 85 min; FRQ 100 → 95 min; updated conventions on the equation sheet; revised EK 15.7.B.1 (radioactive decay).

Score distribution 2026

5: 20% · 4: 29% · 3: 23% · 2: 21% · 1: 7%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Physics C: MechanicsHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamPhysics C — Mechanics (calculus-based)3 hours (MCQ 85 minutes + FRQ 95 minutes) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 20% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions or question sets based on the same stimulus/data set.4285 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response4 questions, one of each type: Mathematical Routines (MR), Translation Between Representations (TBR), Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB), Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT). The CED (summer 2026 update) suggests: MR 20–25 minutes, TBR 25–30 minutes, LAB 25–30 minutes, QQT 15–20 minutes.495 minutes50%

Hybrid: answer MCQs and view FRQ prompts in Bluebook, handwrite FRQs in a paper booklet (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections: handheld four-function, scientific or graphing calculators, or Desmos (scientific/graphing) in Bluebook. Reference material (equation tables, constants — Table of Information/Equations) is available throughout the exam, with a digital version in Bluebook. Rulers and straightedges are allowed in the FRQ section.

Free-response question types

  • Mathematical Routines (MR)1 questions · 10Use mathematics to analyse a scenario: derive symbolic expressions, calculate numerical values, and draw/sketch representations (free-body diagrams, graphs) to support the analysis.
  • Translation Between Representations (TBR)1 questions · 12Draw representations (free-body diagrams, energy/momentum bar charts), derive equations, sketch graphs, then explain the consistency between representations or predict what happens when conditions change.
  • Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB)1 questions · 10Describe a measurement procedure with the given equipment, choose quantities to graph to linearize the data, plot points + a best-fit line, and use the slope to determine the required quantity.
  • Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT)1 questions · 8Make and justify a qualitative claim, derive the relevant equations, then explain why the parts agree or predict what happens when conditions change.

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 40 raw points in total (MR 10 · TBR 12 · LAB 10 · QQT 8)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Points A1, A2, … (each point 1 criterion)0–1 per PointEach Point is a specific criterion (one arrow in the correct direction, one correct starting equation, one correct value…); you earn the Point for each criterion you meet.
Multistep derivation1 Point (key steps and the final expression are scored as separate Points)A multi-step derivation must start from the fundamental principle/equation the Point requires (e.g. Newton's second law, conservation of momentum, the work–energy theorem); subsequent Points are scored separately for key steps (e.g. separating variables dv, dt; substituting a derived expression) and for the correct final expression in terms of the given quantities.
“Consistent with” (follow-through)per PointSome Points are scored for consistency with an earlier part (e.g. data points plotted to match the quantities chosen for the axes), so an error in an early part can still earn later points if the later work is correct based on that result.
Claim + justification (TBR/QQT)usually 1 claim Point + 1–2 justification PointsA claim Point only requires the correct choice (e.g. ω₂ > ω₁); a justification Point must state the correct physical reason, e.g. relating force and lever arm to torque, and torque over one revolution to rotational kinetic energy.
Graph (LAB)4 graphing Points + 2 slope-analysis PointsGraph: label the axes with the pair of quantities that gives a linear graph (with units), use a linear scale, plot data points correctly and draw a trend/best-fit line. Analysis: state the correct relationship between the slope and the quantity to be found, then calculate a value within the accepted range.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Q4 (QQT) has the lowest mean score (2.30/8 in 2025): claims must be justified with specific physics principles connected to the given information (2025 report).
  • Elastic potential energy is always positive (whether the spring is compressed or stretched); the momentum of a two-object system is constant in a collision — show it with identical arrows before/after (2025 report).
  • LAB question: use only measurements possible with the equipment provided, and clearly state the graphed axes + the meaning of the best-fit line's slope (2025 report).
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam (new CED, effective Fall 2024): becomes a separate 3-hour exam — MCQ 40 questions/80 min, FRQ 4 questions/100 min in 4 types MR/TBR/LAB/QQT; 7 units (Kinematics → Oscillations).
  • From the May 2025 exam: hybrid digital in Bluebook.
  • From the May 2027 exam: MCQ 40 → 42 questions, 80 → 85 min; FRQ 100 → 95 min.

Score distribution 2026

5: 20% · 4: 25% · 3: 27% · 2: 17% · 1: 11%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Physics C: Electricity and MagnetismAvailable at IIG VietnamPhysics C — Electricity and Magnetism (calculus-based)3 hours (MCQ 85 minutes + FRQ 95 minutes) · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 24% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions or question sets based on the same stimulus/data set.4285 minutes50%
Section II: Free Response4 questions, one of each type: Mathematical Routines (MR), Translation Between Representations (TBR), Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB), Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT). The CED (summer 2026 update) suggests: MR 20–25 minutes, TBR 25–30 minutes, LAB 25–30 minutes, QQT 15–20 minutes.495 minutes50%

Hybrid: answer MCQs and view FRQ prompts in Bluebook, handwrite FRQs in a paper booklet (May 2027 exam)

Allowed in both sections: handheld four-function, scientific or graphing calculators, or Desmos (scientific/graphing) in Bluebook. Reference material (equation tables, constants — Table of Information/Equations) is available throughout the exam, with a digital version in Bluebook. Rulers and straightedges are allowed in the FRQ section.

Free-response question types

  • Mathematical Routines (MR)1 questions · 10Use mathematics to analyse a scenario: derive symbolic expressions, calculate numerical values, and draw/sketch representations (free-body diagrams, graphs) to support the analysis.
  • Translation Between Representations (TBR)1 questions · 12Draw representations (arrows for field/force direction, bar charts, diagrams), derive equations, sketch graphs, then explain the consistency between representations or predict what happens when conditions change.
  • Experimental Design and Analysis (LAB)1 questions · 10Describe a measurement procedure with the given equipment, choose quantities to graph to linearize the data, plot points + a best-fit line, and use the slope to determine the required quantity.
  • Qualitative/Quantitative Translation (QQT)1 questions · 8Make and justify a qualitative claim, derive the relevant equations, then explain why the parts agree or predict what happens when conditions change.

Rubric — FRQ scored by Point — 40 raw points in total (MR 10 · TBR 12 · LAB 10 · QQT 8)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Points A1, A2, … (each point 1 criterion)0–1 per PointEach Point is a specific criterion (one arrow in the correct direction, one correct starting equation, one correct value…); you earn the Point for each criterion you meet.
Multistep derivation1 Point (key steps and the final expression are scored as separate Points)A multi-step derivation must start from the fundamental principle/equation the Point requires (e.g. Ampère's law, Faraday's law, the definition of the electric field of dq); subsequent Points are scored separately for key steps (correct substitution, limits of integration) and for the correct final expression in terms of the given quantities. Scoring Notes usually do not require vector/line-integral notation.
“Consistent with” (follow-through)per PointSome Points are scored for consistency with an earlier part (e.g. data points plotted to match the quantities chosen for the axes), so an error in an early part can still earn later points if the later work is correct based on that result.
Claim + justification (TBR/QQT)usually 1 claim Point + 1–2 justification PointsA claim Point only requires the correct choice (e.g. I₂ > I₁, V equals 0); a justification Point must state the correct physical reason, e.g. identify the functional dependence of the current on the changing quantity in the derived expression.
Graph (LAB)4 graphing Points + 2 slope-analysis PointsGraph: label the axes with the pair of quantities that gives a linear graph (with units), use a linear scale, plot data points correctly and draw a trend/best-fit line. Analysis: state the correct relationship between the slope and the quantity to be found, then calculate a value within the accepted range.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Gauss's law: the closed-surface integral is the total flux through every element dA — choose a Gaussian surface matching the symmetry, and do not write meaningless formal integrals (2025 report).
  • Induced emf depends on the instantaneous rate of change of magnetic flux (a rotating loop → periodic variation); it does not increase linearly with time (2025 report).
  • Read the question carefully: use the cross-sectional area, not the surface area; the magnetic force on a point charge uses F = qvB, not ∫I dl × B (2025 report).
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam (new CED, effective Fall 2024): becomes a separate 3-hour exam — MCQ 40 questions/80 min, FRQ 4 questions/100 min in 4 types MR/TBR/LAB/QQT; 6 units numbered 8–13 (Electric Charges, Fields, and Gauss’s Law → Electromagnetic Induction).
  • From the May 2025 exam: hybrid digital in Bluebook.
  • From the May 2027 exam: MCQ 40 → 42 questions, 80 → 85 min; FRQ 100 → 95 min; updated conventions on the equation sheet.

Score distribution 2026

5: 24% · 4: 24% · 3: 27% · 2: 17% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

History & Social Sciences 10 subjects

AP United States History8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamUnited States History3 hours 15 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 14% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I, Part A: Multiple ChoiceSets of 3–4 questions sharing a source (primary/secondary text, images, charts, maps). Unchanged for the 2027 exam.5555 minutes40%
Section I, Part B: Short Answer2027 exam: answer all 3 required questions — Q1 one or more written secondary sources, Q2 a written primary source, Q3 a non-text source (image, map, chart…); each on a different period, within 1491–2001. (2026 exam: Q1 and Q2 required + choose Q3 or Q4, with no source.)340 minutes20%
Section II: DBQ7 documents; write an argumentative essay based on the documents + outside knowledge. Scope: 1754–1980 (per the AP Central Exam page and CED 2026; unchanged from the 2026 exam).160 minutes recommended (including 15 minutes of reading)25%
Section II: Long Essay2027 exam: only 1 required LEQ, a broad prompt covering about half the course's periods, with a short introductory passage suggesting a direction; students choose the developments to analyse. (2026 exam: choose 1 of 3 prompts 1491–1800 / 1800–1898 / 1890–2001 (old style).) Section II totals 1 hour 40 minutes.140 minutes recommended15%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital): both multiple choice and free response are typed in Bluebook and submitted automatically when time runs out (since 2025, unchanged for 2027).

No handheld calculator; no formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Short-Answer Question (SAQ)3 questions · 3Each question has 3 parts A/B/C, 1 point each; short answers in complete sentences.
  • Document-Based Question (DBQ)1 questions · 77 documents; thesis + context + use of documents + outside evidence + sourcing + complexity.
  • Long Essay Question (LEQ)1 questions · 6An argumentative essay based on a historical thinking skill (comparison, causation, continuity and change).

Rubric — DBQ — 7 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1Makes a historically defensible thesis that answers the question and establishes a line of reasoning (giving reasons or categories of argument); merely restating the prompt does not count.
Row B: Contextualization0–1Describes a broader historical context (before/during/after the period) relevant to the prompt, with enough specificity; a passing phrase or a generic statement does not count.
Row C: Evidence from Documents0–21 point: accurately describes (not just quotes) the content of at least 3 documents relevant to the question. 2 points: uses at least 4 documents to support an argument that answers the question.
Row C: Evidence Beyond Documents0–1Uses at least 1 specific piece of historical evidence NOT in the documents, from the right period/region, to support the argument (it must differ from the evidence used for the context point).
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Sourcing0–1For at least 2 documents, explains how or why the document's point of view, purpose, historical situation and/or audience is relevant to the argument — not just naming them.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Complex Understanding0–1Demonstrates complex understanding through sophisticated argumentation (multiple perspectives, multiple causes/effects, both similarities and differences, connections across periods…) and/or effective use of evidence (e.g. sourcing 4 documents, using documents to support a nuanced argument); it must be part of the argument and more than a phrase/passing reference; it need not run throughout the essay and may appear in any paragraph.

Rubric — LEQ — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1A historically defensible thesis that responds to the prompt and establishes a line of reasoning.
Row B: Contextualization0–1Describes a broader historical context relevant to the prompt, accurately and more specifically than a passing sentence.
Row C: Evidence0–21 point: identifies at least 2 specific historical examples relevant to the topic. 2 points: uses at least 2 specific pieces of evidence to support an argument that answers the question.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Complex Understanding0–21 point: uses historical reasoning (comparison, causation, continuity and change) to frame the argument. 2 points: demonstrates a complex understanding through a sophisticated argument or by using at least 4 specific pieces of evidence to support a nuanced argument.

Rubric — SAQ — 3 points/question

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Part A0–1Answers part A correctly (usually Identify/Describe) with accurate historical content; 'describe' must give characteristics, not just name a term.
Part B0–1Answers part B correctly; 'explain' must state why/how, with specific evidence (events/developments) from the correct period.
Part C0–1Answers part C correctly; each part is scored independently, in complete sentences (bullet points/outlines are not scored).
The Chief Reader notes
  • Read the documents carefully and place them in context: CR Report 2025 (Set 1, DBQ) notes that many responses misread Document 5 (Goldwater) and attributed Medicare to Kennedy instead of Johnson — gaps in background knowledge cost the document-use points.
  • LEQ: answer about the subject the prompt asks about (if it asks how Indigenous peoples adapted, treat them as the actors, not the Europeans); stay within the geographic scope (using the Inca for North America is off-topic) — CR Report 2025, Set 1.
  • Distinguish cause from effect: many responses treated 'disease' (in general terms) as a form of adaptation; strong responses used disease as the agent of change and then explained how Indigenous peoples adapted — CR Report 2025, Set 1.
Recent changes
  • From the May 2027 exam (AP History Exam Updates): SAQ — all 3 questions have sources and are all required (Q3 uses a non-text source); the option to choose a no-source Q3/Q4 is removed.
  • From May 2027: the LEQ has just 1 required prompt (a broad prompt covering ~half the periods, with an introductory statement) instead of a choice of 1 of 3. The general update page says the DBQ covers a wider span, but for APUSH specifically the CED and Exam page still list the DBQ as 1754–1980. Multiple choice, course content and scoring rubrics are NOT changed.
  • Since 2025: fully in Bluebook (free responses typed too).

Score distribution 2026

5: 14% · 4: 37% · 3: 23% · 2: 18% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP World History: Modern8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamWorld History: Modern3 hours 15 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 14% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I, Part A: Multiple ChoiceSets of 3–4 questions sharing a source (primary/secondary text, images, charts, maps). Unchanged for the 2027 exam.5555 minutes40%
Section I, Part B: Short Answer2027 exam: answer all 3 required questions — Q1 a written secondary source, Q2 a written primary source, Q3 a non-text source (image, map, chart…); each question covers a different period, within 1200–2001. (2026 exam: Q1 and Q2 required + choose Q3 or Q4, with no source.)340 minutes20%
Section II: DBQ7 documents; write an argumentative essay based on the documents + outside knowledge. Scope for the 2027 exam: 1200–2001 (CED 2026, AP Central Exam page, AP Students); the 2026 exam covered 1450–2001.160 minutes recommended (including 15 minutes of reading)25%
Section II: Long Essay2027 exam: only 1 required LEQ, a broad prompt covering about half the course's periods, with a short introductory passage suggesting a direction; students choose the developments to analyse. (2026 exam: choose 1 of 3 prompts 1200–1750 / 1450–1900 / 1750–2001 (old style).) Section II totals 1 hour 40 minutes.140 minutes recommended15%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital): both multiple choice and free response are typed in Bluebook and submitted automatically when time runs out (since 2025, unchanged for 2027).

No handheld calculator; no formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Short-Answer Question (SAQ)3 questions · 3Each question has 3 parts A/B/C, 1 point each; short answers in complete sentences.
  • Document-Based Question (DBQ)1 questions · 77 documents; thesis + context + use of documents + outside evidence + sourcing + complexity.
  • Long Essay Question (LEQ)1 questions · 6An argumentative essay based on a historical thinking skill (comparison, causation, continuity and change).

Rubric — DBQ — 7 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1Makes a historically defensible thesis that answers the question and establishes a line of reasoning (giving reasons or categories of argument); merely restating the prompt does not count.
Row B: Contextualization0–1Describes a broader historical context (before/during/after the period) relevant to the prompt, with enough specificity; a passing phrase or a generic statement does not count.
Row C: Evidence from Documents0–21 point: accurately describes (not just quotes) the content of at least 3 documents relevant to the question. 2 points: uses at least 4 documents to support an argument that answers the question.
Row C: Evidence Beyond Documents0–1Uses at least 1 specific piece of historical evidence NOT in the documents, from the right period/region, to support the argument (it must differ from the evidence used for the context point).
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Sourcing0–1For at least 2 documents, explains how or why the document's point of view, purpose, historical situation and/or audience is relevant to the argument — not just naming them.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Complex Understanding0–1Demonstrates complex understanding through sophisticated argumentation (multiple perspectives, multiple causes/effects, both similarities and differences, connections across periods…) and/or effective use of evidence (e.g. sourcing 4 documents, using documents to support a nuanced argument); it must be part of the argument and more than a phrase/passing reference; it need not run throughout the essay and may appear in any paragraph.

Rubric — LEQ — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1A historically defensible thesis that responds to the prompt and establishes a line of reasoning.
Row B: Contextualization0–1Describes a broader historical context relevant to the prompt, accurately and more specifically than a passing sentence.
Row C: Evidence0–21 point: identifies at least 2 specific historical examples relevant to the topic. 2 points: uses at least 2 specific pieces of evidence to support an argument that answers the question.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Complex Understanding0–21 point: uses historical reasoning (comparison, causation, continuity and change) to frame the argument. 2 points: demonstrates a complex understanding through a sophisticated argument or by using at least 4 specific pieces of evidence to support a nuanced argument.

Rubric — SAQ — 3 points/question

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Part A0–1Answers part A correctly (usually Identify/Describe) with accurate historical content; 'describe' must give characteristics, not just name a term.
Part B0–1Answers part B correctly; 'explain' must state why/how, with specific evidence (events/developments) from the correct period.
Part C0–1Answers part C correctly; each part is scored independently, in complete sentences (bullet points/outlines are not scored).
The Chief Reader notes
  • DBQ: just sorting documents into 'positive/negative' groups is not enough — you must explain how the content of each document serves the argument (CR Report 2025, Set 1).
  • Sourcing often fails because responses just copy the source line; you must explain why the POV/purpose/context/audience is relevant to the argument (CR Report 2025, Set 1 and Set 2).
  • Many responses skip the contextualization point (jumping straight to the thesis); read the conjunction 'and/or' in the prompt carefully and prepare specific evidence (e.g. beyond the caste system when writing about Hinduism) (CR Report 2025, Set 1, LEQ Q4).
Recent changes
  • From the May 2027 exam (AP History Exam Updates): SAQ — all 3 questions have sources and are all required (Q3 uses a non-text source); the option to choose a no-source Q3/Q4 is removed.
  • From May 2027: the LEQ has just 1 required prompt (a broad prompt covering ~half the periods, with an introductory statement) instead of a choice of 1 of 3; the DBQ scope widens from 1450–2001 to 1200–2001. Multiple choice, course content and scoring rubrics are NOT changed.
  • Since 2025: fully in Bluebook (free responses typed too).

Score distribution 2026

5: 14% · 4: 36% · 3: 16% · 2: 26% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP European HistoryNot offered at IIGEuropean History3 hours 15 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 16% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I, Part A: Multiple ChoiceSets of 3–4 questions sharing a source (primary/secondary text, images, charts, maps). Unchanged for the 2027 exam.5555 minutes40%
Section I, Part B: Short Answer2027 exam: answer all 3 required questions — Q1 a written secondary source, Q2 a written primary source, Q3 a non-text source (image, map, chart…); each question covers a different period, within 1450–2001. (2026 exam: Q1 and Q2 required + choose Q3 or Q4, with no source.)340 minutes20%
Section II: DBQ7 documents; write an argumentative essay based on the documents + outside knowledge. Scope: 1450–2001.160 minutes recommended (including 15 minutes of reading)25%
Section II: Long Essay2027 exam: only 1 required LEQ, a broad prompt covering about half the course's periods, with a short introductory passage suggesting a direction; students choose the developments to analyse. (2026 exam: choose 1 of 3 prompts 1450–1700 / 1648–1914 / 1815–2001 (old style).) Section II totals 1 hour 40 minutes.140 minutes recommended15%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital): both multiple choice and free response are typed in Bluebook and submitted automatically when time runs out (May 2027 exams).

No handheld calculator; no formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Short-Answer Question (SAQ)3 questions · 3Each question has 3 parts A/B/C, 1 point each; short answers in complete sentences.
  • Document-Based Question (DBQ)1 questions · 77 documents; thesis + context + use of documents + outside evidence + sourcing + complexity.
  • Long Essay Question (LEQ)1 questions · 6An argumentative essay based on a historical thinking skill (comparison, causation, continuity and change).

Rubric — DBQ — 7 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1Makes a historically defensible thesis that answers the question and establishes a line of reasoning (giving reasons or categories of argument); merely restating the prompt does not count.
Row B: Contextualization0–1Describes a broader historical context (before/during/after the period) relevant to the prompt, with enough specificity; a passing phrase or a generic statement does not count.
Row C: Evidence from Documents0–21 point: accurately describes (not just quotes) the content of at least 3 documents relevant to the question. 2 points: uses at least 4 documents to support an argument that answers the question.
Row C: Evidence Beyond Documents0–1Uses at least 1 specific piece of historical evidence NOT in the documents, from the right period/region, to support the argument (it must differ from the evidence used for the context point).
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Sourcing0–1For at least 2 documents, explains how or why the document's point of view, purpose, historical situation and/or audience is relevant to the argument — not just naming them.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Complex Understanding0–1Demonstrates complex understanding through sophisticated argumentation (multiple perspectives, multiple causes/effects, both similarities and differences, connections within/across periods or regions…) and/or effective use of evidence (e.g. using all 7 documents effectively, sourcing 4 documents, combining documents with outside evidence to illuminate different perspectives). It must be part of the argument; it need not run throughout the essay but must be more than a passing phrase.

Rubric — LEQ — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1A historically defensible thesis that responds to the prompt and establishes a line of reasoning.
Row B: Contextualization0–1Describes a broader historical context relevant to the prompt, accurately and more specifically than a passing sentence.
Row C: Evidence0–21 point: identifies at least 2 specific historical examples relevant to the topic. 2 points: uses at least 2 specific pieces of evidence to support an argument that answers the question.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning — Complex Understanding0–21 point: uses historical reasoning (comparison, causation, continuity and change) to frame the argument. 2 points: demonstrates a complex understanding through a sophisticated argument or by using at least 4 specific pieces of evidence to support a nuanced argument.

Rubric — SAQ — 3 points/question

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Part A0–1Answers part A correctly (usually Identify/Describe) with accurate historical content; 'describe' must give characteristics, not just name a term.
Part B0–1Answers part B correctly; 'explain' must state why/how, with specific evidence (events/developments) from the correct period.
Part C0–1Answers part C correctly; each part is scored independently, in complete sentences (bullet points/outlines are not scored).
The Chief Reader notes
  • DBQ: context is rejected when it is too distant in time, too general or just a passing phrase (2025 report, Set 1).
  • DBQ: outside evidence is often rejected because it falls outside the period in the prompt or is not tied to the argument; read documents carefully (e.g. Document 2 was misread as saying women already had the right in 1791) (2025 report, Set 1).
  • LEQ: the thesis must establish a line of reasoning (state the specific difference/cause), not just make a claim; the context must explain why it is relevant to the prompt (2025 report, Set 1).
Recent changes
  • From the May 2027 exam (AP History Exam Updates): SAQ — all 3 questions have sources and are all required (Q3 uses a non-text source); the option to choose a no-source Q3/Q4 is removed.
  • From May 2027: the LEQ has just 1 required prompt (a broad prompt covering ~half the course's time span, with an introductory statement) instead of a choice of 1 of 3; the DBQ scope widens from 1600–2001 to 1450–2001. Multiple choice, course content, scoring rubrics, number of questions, timing and section weightings are NOT changed.

Score distribution 2026

5: 16% · 4: 33% · 3: 25% · 2: 18% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP African American StudiesNot offered at IIGAfrican American Studies2 hours 45 minutes (exam) — not counting the project done during the year · Testing in Bluebook · 20% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceSets of 3–4 questions sharing 1–2 sources; about half the sources come from the course's list of required sources, the rest are new sources on the same topics.6070 minutes60%
Section IB: Individual Student Project — Exam Day Validation QuestionWrite a response to an oral defense question about your project: analyse/compare/evaluate at least one source used in the project.110 minutes1,5%
Section II: Short-Answer Questions1 text-based source question, 1 visual source question, 1 broad-theme question with no source; each question has 3 or 4 parts.340 minutes18%
Section II: Document-Based Question5 documents; write an argument based on the documents + outside knowledge.145 minutes (including reading time)12%
Individual Student Project (outside exam time)Choose your own topic, research interdisciplinary sources, present and answer the teacher's questions (oral defense).—about 3 weeks over the year8,5%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital) + an Individual Student Project completed during the year (presentation + oral defense, scored by the teacher).

No calculator; no formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Exam Day Validation (project)1 questions · 21 point if the description is relevant + cites a specific source; 2 points if it EXPLAINS (e.g. how the source deepened understanding) + a specific source.
  • Short-Answer Question (SAQ)3 questions · 3–4 per question (2026: Q1 4 points, Q2 3, Q3 3)1 point per part: describe/explain; many parts require specific examples.
  • Document-Based Question (DBQ)1 questions · 75 documents; thesis, context, evidence from sources, evidence beyond, source use, reasoning.

Rubric — DBQ — 7 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis/Claim0–1A defensible thesis that responds to the prompt and establishes a line of reasoning; restating the prompt does not count.
Row B: Context0–1Describes a broader historical (or interdisciplinary) context relevant to the prompt, specifically rather than generally.
Row C: Evidence from Sources0–21 point: uses the content of at least 2 documents to address the topic. 2 points: uses at least 3 documents to support the argument.
Row C: Evidence Beyond Sources0–1At least 1 piece of specific evidence beyond the documents, relevant to the argument.
Row D: Source Use0–1For at least 2 documents, explains how or why the document's point of view, purpose, situation and/or audience is relevant to the argument.
Row E: Reasoning0–1Uses reasoning (causation, comparison, change/continuity over time or across geography) to frame an argument that answers the question.

Rubric — Exam Day Validation — 2 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Exam Day Validation0–21 point: relevant descriptive information + cites a specific source from the project. 2 points: explains (not just describes) as the question requires, with a specific source.

Rubric — SAQ — 3–4 points/question

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Each part (A, B, C, D)0–1Responds to the part's task verb (describe/explain), uses specific examples when required and stays within the time frame given in the question.
The Chief Reader notes
  • SAQ: confusing periods (19th/20th/21st century) led to incorrect descriptions of figures and documents — e.g. placing Sojourner Truth in a question about the 20th–21st centuries (2025 report, Set 1).
  • DBQ: an opening sentence that merely restates the prompt is not a thesis; you must state a claim + a line of reasoning (2025 report, Set 1).
  • DBQ: vague context ('Black people were discriminated against…') earns no point; you need specific dates, places and events (2025 report, Set 1).
Recent changes
  • The past exam questions page has the 2024 exam (one set), 2025 (two sets, Set 1/Set 2) and 2026 (one set); fully in Bluebook.
  • CED Clarifications (Aug 2025): adds a sample Exam Day Validation question with scoring guidance and updates required sources for some topics — the exam framework is NOT changed. The 2027 exam stays the same: MCQ 60%, EDV 1.5%, SAQ 18%, DBQ 12%, project 8.5%.

Score distribution 2026

5: 20% · 4: 30% · 3: 27% · 2: 17% · 1: 6%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP United States Government and PoliticsNot offered at IIGUnited States Government and Politics3 hours · Testing in Bluebook · 23% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice~30 single questions without sources + question sets: 5 quantitative analysis sets (2–3 questions per set); 2 text-based sets (3–4 questions per set: 1 set using a foundational document, 1 set using a primary or secondary source); 3 visual sets (2 questions per set: maps, political cartoons, infographics).5580 minutes50%
Section II: Free ResponseQ1 Concept Application, Q2 Quantitative Analysis, Q3 SCOTUS Comparison, Q4 Argument Essay — each question 12.5% of the exam score. Suggested: ~20 minutes for each of Q1–Q3, ~40 minutes for Q4.4100 minutes50%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital).

No calculator; no formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Concept Application1 questions · 3Political scenario: describe and explain the effects of institutions/behaviors/processes, and apply concepts to a new scenario.
  • Quantitative Analysis1 questions · 4Read tables/charts/maps: identify and describe trends, draw conclusions, explain the connection to political principles/institutions.
  • SCOTUS Comparison1 questions · 4Compare a non-required case with a required case: A identify the common element (1), B explain why the rulings were similar/different based on the facts (2), C apply a concept (1).
  • Argument Essay1 questions · 6An argumentative essay; at least 1 piece of evidence from a foundational document listed in the prompt.

Rubric — Argument Essay — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Claim/Thesis0–1Makes a defensible claim that responds to the prompt and establishes a line of reasoning (it can appear anywhere in the response); merely copying/paraphrasing the prompt or not making a claim that responds to the prompt does not count.
Row B: Evidence0–31 point: 1 piece of evidence relevant to the topic. 2 points: 1 specific piece of evidence that supports the claim, OR 2 pieces of evidence relevant to the topic. 3 points: 2 specific pieces of evidence supporting the claim, one of which comes from a foundational document on the list in the question (Row A point must already be earned).
Row C: Reasoning0–1Explain why/how the evidence supports the argument (using classification, process, causation or comparison); at least 1 specific, relevant piece of evidence is required.
Row D: Responds to Alternate Perspectives0–1Describe an opposing/alternative perspective AND rebut it (rebuttal or refutation); Row A must already be earned. Merely stating the opposite of the thesis, merely describing another perspective, or rebutting a foundational document instead of a perspective does not count.

Rubric — SCOTUS Comparison — 4 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Part A0–1Correctly identifies the common element (e.g. a constitutional clause) between the required case and the case in the prompt — give only one answer.
Part B0–22 points: explains how the facts of the two cases led to similar/different holdings; 1 point if it only provides accurate, relevant information about the required case.
Part C0–1Explain how the case illustrates the concept/consequence asked about (2026: stare decisis).

Rubric — Concept Application (3) & Quantitative Analysis (4)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Each part A/B/C(/D)0–1Scored by task verb: identify (state correctly), describe (give characteristics), explain (why/how, linked to a concept), draw a conclusion (a conclusion based on the data). For data questions, you must use the data given in the question correctly.
The Chief Reader notes
  • SCOTUS (CR Report 2025): Part A — name only ONE clause; naming several risks losing the point; Part B must show why the same clause (the Commerce Clause) led to different rulings based on the facts.
  • Argument Essay (2025 report): the thesis needs a clear line of reasoning; do not list document names in place of reasoning, and do not argue both sides without choosing one.
  • Use foundational documents accurately (2025 report); evidence that is factually wrong or taken from documents unrelated to the prompt does not count.
Recent changes
  • Effective fall 2026 (2027 exam): the list of Required Foundational Documents adds 4 documents — the Emancipation Proclamation, Federalist No. 39, the Gettysburg Address, and core principles from The Wealth of Nations (Adam Smith); some LOs/EKs revised accordingly (CED Clarifications and Corrections).
  • Roe v. Wade is still required content (Topic 3.9 alongside Griswold and Dobbs) but will not be the focus of FRQ 3 (per AP Students).

Score distribution 2026

5: 23% · 4: 28% · 3: 25% · 2: 16% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Comparative Government and PoliticsNot offered at IIGComparative Government and Politics2 hours 30 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice40–44 discrete questions without sources; 3 quantitative analysis sets and 2 secondary text analysis sets (2–3 questions each). 6 countries: China, Iran, Mexico, Nigeria, Russia, United Kingdom.5560 minutes50%
Section II: Free ResponseQ1 Conceptual Analysis (11%, ~10 min), Q2 Quantitative Analysis (12.5%, ~20 min), Q3 Comparative Analysis (12.5%, ~20 min), Q4 Argument Essay (14%, ~40 min) — % is the weighting in the total exam score.490 minutes50%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital).

No calculator; no formula sheet.

Free-response question types

  • Conceptual Analysis1 questions · 4Define/describe political concepts; explain or compare systems, institutions and policies.
  • Quantitative Analysis1 questions · 5Read data: identify and describe trends, describe concepts, draw conclusions, explain the implications for the political system.
  • Comparative Analysis1 questions · 5Compare concepts/institutions/policies in two of the course countries (2026: A 1 point, B 2 points, C 2 points).
  • Argument Essay1 questions · 5An argumentative essay using evidence from course countries linked to the concept given in the prompt.

Rubric — Argument Essay — 5 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Claim/Thesis0–1Makes a defensible claim that responds to the prompt and establishes a line of reasoning (it can appear anywhere in the response); merely copying/paraphrasing the prompt or not making a claim that responds to the prompt does not count.
Row B: Evidence0–21 point: 1 specific, relevant piece of evidence from a course country linked to the concept in the question. 2 points: 2 specific pieces of evidence from one or more course countries.
Row C: Reasoning0–1Explain why/how the evidence supports the claim; the Row A point must already be earned (explaining 1 piece of evidence is enough).
Row D: Responds to Alternate Perspectives0–1Describe an opposing/alternative perspective AND respond with refutation, concession or rebuttal; Row A must already be earned. Merely stating the opposite of the thesis or merely describing another perspective does not count.

Rubric — Conceptual / Quantitative / Comparative — scored by point

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Each part A, B, C… (Comparative: a part comparing 2 countries may be worth 2 points)0–1 or 0–2Uses the correct verb (identify/describe/explain/draw a conclusion) and examples from the correct country; for a 2-point part asking about two countries, each country earns at most 1 point.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Correctly distinguish the judiciary's functions (interpreting and reviewing laws) from law enforcement; know how judges are appointed/removed in each country (CR Report 2025).
  • Do not overuse 'legitimacy' as an explanation for everything — a specific mechanism is needed (2025 report).
  • Argument Essay (2025 report): distinguish civil liberties from civil rights; evidence must be tied to the concept given in the prompt, with an explanation of why it supports the thesis.

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 22% · 3: 33% · 2: 18% · 1: 12%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP MicroeconomicsHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamMicroeconomics2 hours 10 minutes · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 19% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDefine economic principles/models, explain outcomes and determine the outcomes of specific scenarios.601 hour 10 minutes66%
Section II: Free Response1 long question (50% of the FRQ section score) + 2 short questions (25% each). Suggested timing for 2026: 10 minutes reading, ~25 minutes on question 1, ~12 minutes each on questions 2 and 3.31 hour (including 10 minutes of reading time)33%

Hybrid digital (May 2027 exam): MCQs are answered and FRQ prompts displayed in Bluebook; FRQs are handwritten in a paper booklet.

Four-function calculators (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, square root, percent) allowed in both sections: the Desmos 4-function calculator built into Bluebook and/or up to 2 handheld calculators; calculators with memory, such as scientific or graphing, are NOT allowed (AP Exams Calculator Policy 2027). No formula sheet is provided.

Free-response question types

  • Long FRQ (Question 1)1 questions · 10Multi-part synthesis question with graphing. 2026: game theory (payoff matrix, Nash equilibrium) → monopoly (monopoly graph, DWL, lump-sum tax).
  • Short FRQ (Questions 2–3)2 questions · 55 points per question. 2026: Q2 cost table for a perfectly competitive firm (AVC, profit, MR = MC, long-run adjustment); Q3 free trade and tariffs (world price, tariff, surplus).

How it is scored

  • Each point is scored 0 or 1: the long question has 10 points, each short question 5 points (Scoring Guidelines 2026).
  • A 'State … and explain …' part earns the point only with both the correct conclusion and the economic reasoning; e.g. 2026: a lump-sum tax does not change MC, so the profit-maximizing price stays the same.
  • A 'Calculate … and show your work' part must show the calculation leading to the answer; writing only the final number is not enough; e.g. 2026: AVC = (TC − FC)/Q = ($200 − $80)/4 = $30.
  • Graphs must correctly label the axes, curves and symbols the question requires; elements of the graph are scored as separate points; e.g. 2026 Q1: the monopoly graph is worth 5 points (D, with MR below D; MC and Q1 at MR = MC; P1 read from the demand curve; ATC below P1 with MC crossing the minimum of ATC; DWL area shaded).
The Chief Reader notes
  • The monopoly graph must show D, MR (below D), MC and ATC, and read the price correctly from the demand curve at the Q where MR = MC; many responses lost points due to wrong or missing labels (Chief Reader Report 2025).
  • Practise calculating consumer/producer surplus with the formula and show the calculation clearly; only a 'binding' price ceiling/floor changes the market (CR Report 2025).
  • Payoff matrix: correctly identify the players, strategies and payoffs; explain the dominant strategy by comparing specific numbers (CR Report 2025).
Recent changes
  • From the May 2025 exam, moved to hybrid digital in Bluebook (FRQ still handwritten). The CED was updated in summer 2022 to allow four-function calculators (from the 2023 exam); the CED currently posted says 'Effective Fall 2026'. From 2026 College Board releases only one FRQ set (2023–2025 had set 1 and set 2).

Score distribution 2026

5: 19% · 4: 26% · 3: 23% · 2: 20% · 1: 12%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Macroeconomics8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamMacroeconomics2 hours 10 minutes · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 19% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDefine principles/models, explain outcomes and determine the outcomes of macroeconomic scenarios.601 hour 10 minutes66%
Section II: Free Response1 long question (50% of the FRQ section score) + 2 short questions (25% each); suggested ~25 minutes on question 1, ~12 minutes on each short question.31 hour (including 10 minutes of reading time)33%

Hybrid digital (May 2027 exam): MCQ and FRQ prompts in Bluebook; FRQs handwritten in a paper booklet.

Four-function calculators (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, square root, percent) allowed in both sections: the Desmos 4-function calculator built into Bluebook and/or up to 2 handheld calculators; calculators with memory, such as scientific or graphing, are NOT allowed (AP Exams Calculator Policy 2027). No formula sheet is provided.

Free-response question types

  • Long FRQ (Question 1)1 questions · 102026: an economy with an inflationary gap — the AD–SRAS–LRAS graph, the long-run self-adjustment mechanism, monetary policy with limited reserves (selling bonds, the money market graph), international capital flows, bond prices, private investment and unemployment.
  • Short FRQ (Questions 2–3)2 questions · 55 points per question. 2026: Q2 labor force/unemployment data and the Phillips curve (SRPC, LRPC); Q3 an economy with a recessionary gap — monetary policy with ample reserves, the government spending multiplier, the foreign exchange market.

How it is scored

  • Each point is scored 0 or 1: the long question has 10 points, each short question 5 points (Scoring Guidelines 2026).
  • A 'State … and explain …' part earns the point only with both the correct conclusion and the economic reasoning; e.g. 2026: employed people retiring shrinks the labor force while the number of unemployed stays the same, so the unemployment rate rises.
  • A 'Calculate … and show your work' part must show the calculation leading to the answer; writing only the final number is not enough; e.g. 2026: unemployment rate = 900,000/15,000,000 × 100 = 6%; increase in government spending = 600 million/[1/(1 − 0.75)] = 150 million.
  • Graphs must correctly label the axes, curves and symbols the question requires; elements of the graph are scored as separate points; e.g. 2026 Q1: the AD–AS graph is worth 2 points (Y1, PL1 at the AD–SRAS intersection; a vertical LRAS to the left of Y1, labeled YF), the money market graph 2 points.
The Chief Reader notes
  • The foreign exchange market graph must be labeled correctly and the equilibrium identified correctly; know the identity CA + CFA = 0 and that the CFA is an account (CR Report 2025).
  • Understand how the central bank conducts monetary policy in an 'ample reserves' system; link the long-run self-adjustment mechanism to changes in input costs such as wages (CR Report 2025).
  • Multiplier questions: show every step MPC/MPS → multiplier → application, not just the final number (CR Report 2025).
Recent changes
  • Hybrid digital in Bluebook since May 2025 (FRQ still handwritten). The CED was updated in summer 2022 (adding monetary policy content with 'ample reserves' and the new calculator policy); the CED currently posted says 'Effective Fall 2026'. From 2026 only one FRQ set is released (2023–2025 had set 1 and set 2).

Score distribution 2026

5: 19% · 4: 22% · 3: 25% · 2: 20% · 1: 14%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Psychology8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamPsychology2 hours 40 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceApply theories/concepts, evaluate qualitative–quantitative research methods, read tables/charts of research data.751 hour 30 minutes66,7%
Section II: Free ResponseQ1 AAQ (16.65%) — 25 minutes suggested (10 minutes reading the source); Q2 EBQ (16.65%) — 45 minutes suggested (15 minutes reading 3 sources).21 hour 10 minutes33,3%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital) — both MCQ and FRQ typed, submitted automatically when time runs out.

No calculator (Psychology is not on the list of subjects allowing calculators).

Free-response question types

  • Article Analysis Question (AAQ)1 questions · 7Read the summary of a study and answer 6 parts A–F: method, operational definition, statistical significance, research ethics, generalizability, argument for/against. 2026: phone absence and anxiety (FOMO).
  • Evidence-Based Question (EBQ)1 questions · 7Read 3 research sources, make a claim, use evidence from 2 different sources and explain using 2 different psychological concepts. 2026: what helps people recall newly learned information.

Rubric — AAQ — 7 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Part A: Research Method0–1Correctly name the research method used (only from 5 types: case study, correlational study, experiment, meta-analysis, naturalistic observation); naming an additional method or design feature not in the study loses the point; also mentioning survey, longitudinal… is fine if the method has been named correctly.
Part B: Research Variable0–1Gives a measurable operational definition of the variable (e.g. score on a 20-item anxiety scale), not a general description of a feeling.
Part C: Statistic Interpretation0–1Explain what a statistic means IN the study (e.g. a statistically significant difference = unlikely to be due to chance), not just copy the number or a definition.
Part D: Ethical Guidelines0–1Name an ethical principle that IS present in the study (IRB, informed consent, debriefing…) AND describe how the researchers applied it.
Part E: Generalizability0–1States which population the findings can be generalized to, based on the specific characteristics of the study's participants (not sample size or reliability).
Part F: Argumentation0–22 points for using specific research findings, interpreted accurately to support/refute the hypothesis; 1 point if findings are given but misinterpreted, or explained without using the findings.

Rubric — EBQ — 7 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Part A: Claim0–1Makes a claim relevant to the question (a positive/negative effect, a recommendation to adopt, or a specific effect); merely restating the question, an off-topic claim or an overly simplistic conclusion does not count. Without an acceptable claim in Part A, B and C can still be scored if consistent.
Part B(i): Evidence0–1One specific, accurate, relevant piece of evidence, correctly cited (Source 1/2/3).
Part B(ii): Explanation and Application (Reasoning)0–21 point: correctly interprets evidence supporting the claim; 2 points: also correctly applies a psychological perspective, theory, concept or research finding to explain it. Merely stating a definition does not count.
Part C(i): Evidence0–1A DIFFERENT piece of evidence, taken from one of the other two sources (not the source used in Part B), correctly cited.
Part C(ii): Explanation and Application (Reasoning)0–2Same as B(ii), but must use a psychological concept different from the one in B(ii).
The Chief Reader notes
  • Follow the task verb exactly (Identify, State, Describe, Explain) — as defined in the CED; answers must be tied to the details of the given study (CR Report 2025).
  • AAQ Part A: answers that lose points often misidentify the method (correlation, meta-analysis, naturalistic observation instead of experiment), only name design features such as a survey, or describe the topic instead of the method (CR Report 2025).
  • EBQ: first identify what type of claim the question needs, and read all 3 sources before writing; evidence should come from the study's RESULTS, not its procedure or participants (CR Report 2025).
Recent changes
  • New course framework from the 2024–25 school year, first exam May 2025: the MCQ now has 75 four-option questions in 90 minutes (the old exam had 100 five-option questions in 70 minutes, per the sample exam released in 2012) and 2 new FRQs, AAQ + EBQ (replacing the 2 old-style 7-point questions in 50 minutes; 2024 exam: Concept Application and Research Design); fully digital from 2025. From 2026 only one FRQ set is released.

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 35% · 3: 24% · 2: 18% · 1: 8%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Human GeographyHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamHuman Geography2 hours 15 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 19% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions and question sets; analysing maps, tables, charts, satellite images, infographics and spatial relationships across geographic scales.601 hour50%
Section II: Free ResponseQ1 has no stimulus; Q2 one stimulus (data/image/map); Q3 two stimuli. 25 minutes suggested per question.31 hour 15 minutes50%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital).

No calculator.

Free-response question types

  • Question 1: No Stimulus1 questions · 77 parts A–G, text only. 2026: population (distribution, decline, density, migration, population policy) and political geography (sovereignty, centrifugal forces).
  • Question 2: One Stimulus1 questions · 77 parts A–G based on one source. 2026: a table of countries importing soybeans from Paraguay — commodity dependence, large-scale commercial agriculture, sustainable development.
  • Question 3: Two Stimuli1 questions · 77 parts A–G based on two sources. 2026: Canada — the bilingual population and minority-language schools by province/territory (Source 1), a map of language regions (Source 2).

How it is scored

  • 7 points per question, each part A–G = 1 point; the three questions total 21 points, 50% of the exam score (Scoring Guidelines 2026).
  • Expected depth by task verb: Identify = state correctly; Describe = state a specific characteristic or relationship; Explain = must show a causal connection (a process, outcome or relationship between concepts). The verb 'define' is rarely used (CR Report 2025).
  • The Scoring Guidelines list examples of acceptable answers (A1, A2…) as 'may include' — not a closed list.
  • Parts that say 'Using the data shown…' must be based on the exact data/sources given (2026: Q2 parts A, B, E; Q3 parts A, C).
  • Write in organized prose; outlines are not accepted; no need to restate the question or give more examples than requested (2026 FRQ instructions).
The Chief Reader notes
  • Questions without a stimulus require a firm grasp of terminology (e.g. 2025: sovereignty, supranationalism, deindustrialization) and applying it correctly to a geographic context — the verb 'define' rarely appears (CR Report 2025).
  • 'Explain' requires a clear cause-and-effect link; explain why a policy is more or less effective in terms of cause and effect (CR Report 2025).
  • Practise reading map legends, comparing choropleth maps, reading population pyramids and spotting the 'scale' in each part of the question (CR Report 2025).
Recent changes
  • Fully digital in Bluebook since the May 2025 exam. From 2026 only one FRQ set is released.

Score distribution 2026

5: 19% · 4: 26% · 3: 21% · 2: 24% · 1: 10%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

English 2 subjects

AP English Language and Composition8020 free booksHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamEnglish Language and Composition3 hours 15 minutes · Testing in Bluebook · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice23–25 Reading questions (analysing nonfiction texts) + 20–22 Writing questions (reading like a writer, choosing how to revise a text).451 hour45%
Section II: Free ResponseSynthesis, Rhetorical Analysis, Argument; 15 minutes suggested to read the sources and plan the Synthesis essay, then about 40 minutes to write each essay.32 hours 15 minutes (including 15 minutes of reading time)55%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital) — essays typed.

No calculator.

Free-response question types

  • Question 1: Synthesis1 questions · 6Read 6 sources (including a visual/quantitative source) and write an argument using at least 3 sources. 2026: the value of napping.
  • Question 2: Rhetorical Analysis1 questions · 6Analyse the rhetorical choices of the author of a nonfiction text. 2026: Laura Amy Schlitz's Newbery Medal acceptance speech.
  • Question 3: Argument1 questions · 6Write an evidence-based argument about a claim. 2026: Mae Jemison's claim about considering other people's opinions.

Rubric — Synthesis — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis0–1The thesis takes a defensible position that answers the prompt; merely restating the prompt, saying 'there are pros and cons' or stating an obvious fact does not count. The thesis may appear anywhere.
Row B: Evidence and Commentary0–44 points: specific evidence from ≥3 sources supporting every claim, consistent commentary explaining how the evidence supports a line of reasoning. 3: as above but explains only some of the evidence. 2: evidence from ≥3 sources, with explanation but no line of reasoning established (or flawed reasoning). 1: evidence from ≥2 sources, mostly summary. Fewer than 2 sources = 0. Grammatical/expression errors that impede understanding prevent a score of 4.
Row C: Sophistication0–1Sophisticated argument: explores tensions/complexity, explains implications or limitations of the argument in a broader context, makes effective rhetorical choices throughout, or uses a vivid, persuasive style; a few sentences like 'In a world where…' or 'Some may argue…' are not enough.

Rubric — Rhetorical Analysis — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis0–1The thesis analyses the author's rhetorical choices in relation to the purpose; merely listing devices or summarising the passage does not count.
Row B: Evidence and Commentary0–44 points: specific evidence for every claim, consistent explanation AND identifies multiple rhetorical choices contributing to the author's argument/purpose/message. 3: specific evidence for every claim, explanation of some evidence AND at least one rhetorical choice. 2: some specific evidence but no line of reasoning yet. 1: mostly general evidence, summary. Grammatical errors that impede understanding prevent a score of 4.
Row C: Sophistication0–1Explains the significance of rhetorical choices within the rhetorical situation, explains the purpose/function of complexities or tensions in the text, or uses a vivid, persuasive style throughout; examining individual devices in isolation without seeing how they relate does not earn the point.

Rubric — Argument — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis0–1The thesis takes a defensible position on the extent to which the claim is true; don't dodge with 'there are pros and cons'.
Row B: Evidence and Commentary0–44 points: specific evidence for every claim and consistent commentary following a line of reasoning. 3: specific evidence for every claim but only partial explanation. 2: some specific evidence, no line of reasoning yet. 1: general evidence, mostly summary. Grammatical errors that impede understanding prevent a score of 4.
Row C: Sophistication0–1Sophisticated argument: explores tensions/complexity, explains implications or limitations of the argument in a broader context, makes effective rhetorical choices throughout, or uses a vivid, persuasive style; a few sentences like 'In a world where…' or 'Some may argue…' are not enough.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Synthesis: teach explicitly what synthesis is — extract the key ideas, find connections between sources and combine them into your own position, rather than summarising each source (CR Report 2025).
  • Rhetorical Analysis: low-scoring responses identified rhetorical devices but could not explain how they help the reader understand and act on the message — connect evidence to the thesis through commentary (CR Report 2025).
  • Argument: practise connecting abstract concepts to specific examples; a counterargument is useful but should not be required by a fixed formula (CR Report 2025).
Recent changes
  • Fully digital in Bluebook since the May 2025 exam (essays typed). The three FRQs are scored with a 6-point analytic rubric (Thesis / Evidence and Commentary / Sophistication). From 2026 only one FRQ set is released (2023–2025 had set 1 and set 2).

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 28% · 3: 32% · 2: 15% · 1: 10%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP English Literature and CompositionHas an 8020 practice platformAvailable at IIG VietnamEnglish Literature and Composition3 hours · Testing in Bluebook · 16% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple Choice5 sets of questions (8–13 questions per set) on excerpts of prose fiction, drama and poetry; at least 2 prose passages and 2 poems.551 hour45%
Section II: Free ResponsePoetry Analysis, Prose Fiction Analysis, Literary Argument; ~40 minutes suggested per essay.32 hours55%

Fully in Bluebook (fully digital) — essays typed.

No calculator.

Free-response question types

  • Question 1: Poetry Analysis1 questions · 6Analyse how a poet uses literary elements/techniques. 2026: 'Marking Time' by Christopher Gilbert.
  • Question 2: Prose Fiction Analysis1 questions · 6Analyse a prose/drama excerpt. 2026: an excerpt from The Particular Sadness of Lemon Cake (Aimee Bender).
  • Question 3: Literary Argument1 questions · 6Choose a work of fiction (from a list of ~40 works or your own choice) to analyse a literary concept. 2026: the conflict between the old and the new.

Rubric — Poetry Analysis — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis0–1The thesis presents a defensible interpretation of the poem that addresses the prompt; describing the poem or making general comments does not count.
Row B: Evidence and Commentary0–44 points: specific evidence supporting every claim, consistent commentary AND explanation of multiple literary elements/techniques contributing to meaning. 3: explains at least one literary element contributing to meaning. 2: specific evidence but no line of reasoning yet. 1: general evidence, mostly summary. Grammatical errors that impede understanding prevent a score of 4.
Row C: Sophistication0–1Develops a sophisticated literary argument: explores tensions/complexity in the work, situates the interpretation in a broader context, considers alternative interpretations, or uses a vivid, persuasive style — this must run throughout, not just one sentence.

Rubric — Prose Fiction Analysis — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis0–1The thesis presents a defensible interpretation of the passage that addresses the prompt.
Row B: Evidence and Commentary0–44 points: specific evidence supporting every claim, consistent commentary AND explanation of multiple literary elements/techniques contributing to meaning. 3: explains at least one literary element contributing to meaning. 2: specific evidence but no line of reasoning yet. 1: general evidence, mostly summary. Grammatical errors that impede understanding prevent a score of 4.
Row C: Sophistication0–1Develops a sophisticated literary argument: explores tensions/complexity in the work, situates the interpretation in a broader context, considers alternative interpretations, or uses a vivid, persuasive style — this must run throughout, not just one sentence.

Rubric — Literary Argument — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Thesis0–1The thesis presents a defensible interpretation of the chosen work tied to the concept in the prompt (e.g. 2026: how the tension between old and new contributes to the meaning of the work as a whole).
Row B: Evidence and Commentary0–44 points: specific evidence from the work supporting every claim, consistent commentary following a line of reasoning. 3: specific evidence for every claim but only partial explanation. 2: some specific evidence, no line of reasoning yet. 1: general evidence, mostly plot summary. Grammatical errors that impede understanding prevent a score of 4.
Row C: Sophistication0–1Develops a sophisticated literary argument: explores tensions/complexity in the work, situates the interpretation in a broader context, considers alternative interpretations, or uses a vivid, persuasive style — this must run throughout, not just one sentence.
The Chief Reader notes
  • Reading poetry: make use of the title — it hints at the poem's genre, point of view, setting and theme (CR Report 2025).
  • Use the Notice–Focus–Interpret process with long prose passages: note details, choose the key elements for the prompt, then interpret (CR Report 2025).
  • Theses are often too general; strengthen them with two self-check questions: what does the key word in my thesis mean in this particular work, and where in the work does the evidence NOT support my argument, so I can refine it (CR Report 2025).
Recent changes
  • Fully digital in Bluebook since the May 2025 exam. The three FRQs are scored with a 6-point analytic rubric, replacing the previous holistic rubric. From 2026 only one FRQ set is released (2023–2025 had set 1 and set 2).

Score distribution 2026

5: 16% · 4: 26% · 3: 31% · 2: 16% · 1: 11%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

World Languages 8 subjects

AP Chinese Language and CultureAvailable at IIG VietnamChineseabout 2 hours · Portfolio submission · 48% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Free ResponseQ1 Project Presentation 20% (3′ preparation + 3′ speaking), Q2 Project Q&A 15% (4 × 40″), Q3 Story Narration 7.5%, Q4 Email Response 7.5%4Q1: 3′ preparation + 3′ presentation; Q2: 4 turns × 40″; Q3 + Q4: 30′ shared for both writing questions50%
Section II Part A — Listening (MCQ)2525 minutes25%
Section II Part B — Reading (MCQ)3040 minutes25%

Entirely in Bluebook (from 2027; speaking recorded in Bluebook) + PPR submitted through the AP Digital Portfolio

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Project Presentation (speaking, presentational)1 questions · 11Present the findings of the course project in response to the exam-day prompt, with a printed PPR for reference.
  • Project Q&A (speaking, interpersonal)1 questions · 9Answer 4 recorded questions about the presentation, 40 seconds per question.
  • Story Narration (writing)1 questions · 8Write a story based on a sequence of 4 pictures.
  • Email Response (written)1 questions · 8Reply to an email from a friend/community member, providing the information requested.

Rubric — Project Presentation — 11 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: explains 3 or more factors with relevant details, drawn from research for the project; 1 point: identifies ≥3 factors but explains them superficially, OR explains only 1–2 factors with details. 0 points if off-topic, merely restates the prompt, or is clearly copied/machine-translated/AI-generated.
Cultural Understanding0–22 points: specific examples showing the relationship between the cultural perspectives AND the products/practices of the target culture; 1 point: relevant examples but only listed/described, without explaining that relationship.
Organization0–22 points: organised with an introduction and conclusion, ideas progress logically, easy to follow throughout, with a variety of cohesive devices; 1 point: partly easy to follow, partly disjointed, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–33 points: very varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), control of a range of grammatical structures, errors do not impede understanding, self-correction improves clarity; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, solid basic grammar, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/grammar, repeated memorised phrases, English mixed in.
Delivery0–22 points: pace and intonation engage the listener, speaks fluently and confidently, clear pronunciation, the listener does not have to strain; 1 point: occasional hesitation, monotone or choppy delivery, but the presentation is sustained. Using the full time is not required.

Rubric — Project Q&A — 9 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: answers appropriately with the requested information in at least 3 of the 4 questions (minor misunderstandings allowed); 1 point: answers only 1–2 questions appropriately, the others missing/off-topic.
Cultural Understanding0–21 point: at least one answer describes a product/practice/perspective of the target culture; 2 points: at least one answer COMPARES the target culture with your own/another community, OR explains the relationship between perspectives and products/practices, with details and examples.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary and grammar, errors do not impede understanding, uses circumlocution/paraphrase when lacking a word; 2 points: adequate, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary that cannot sustain the exchange.
Fluency0–22 points: speaks fluently and naturally, with clear pronunciation and effective intonation (natural pauses are fine); 1 point: occasional hesitation, repeated fillers that break the flow.

Rubric — Story Narration — 8 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Narrative Development0–33 points: tells a complete story that fits and incorporates all 4 pictures, with relevant details/dialogue; 2 points: uses at least 3 pictures, with some detail; 1 point: only 1–2 pictures, or mainly describes pictures/lists words.
Organization0–22 points: easy to follow, with a clear beginning – middle – end, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but lacks clear stages.
Language Control0–3Accurate and varied vocabulary, grammar and writing.

Rubric — Email Response — 8 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Message Development0–33 points: clearly and directly answers BOTH requests for information in the email, with relevant details/examples; 2 points: addresses at least one request; 1 point: replies to the email but does not provide the requested information.
Organization0–22 points: easy to follow throughout, with a greeting and closing, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but may lack a greeting/closing, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–3Varied vocabulary and grammatical structures, including culturally appropriate expressions, with an appropriate register; errors do not impede comprehension (3 points).
Recent changes
  • NEW exam framework from the 2026–27 school year (May 2027 exam): the 2 old speaking tasks (Conversation, Cultural Presentation) are removed and replaced by a Course Project: students research a topic (2026–27: Unit 3 Art and Creativity, through the lens of music), submit a Personalized Project Reference (PPR) through the AP Digital Portfolio by 30 Apr 2027, and on exam day give a presentation + Q&A recorded in Bluebook. The exam moves entirely to Bluebook (no paper exam; a wired headset with microphone is required). The Course Project Packet is released in January 2027. Story Narration + Email Response are kept but scored with a new analytic rubric (8 points).

Score distribution 2026

5: 48% · 4: 19% · 3: 18% · 2: 6% · 1: 9%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP French Language and CultureAvailable at IIG VietnamFrenchabout 2 hours 30 minutes · Portfolio submission · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Free ResponseQ1 Project Presentation 20%, Q2 Project Q&A 15%, Q3 Argumentative Essay 15%3Q1: 3′ preparation + 3′ presentation; Q2: 4 turns × 40″; Q3: 55′50%
Section II Part A — Listening (MCQ)2540 minutes25%
Section II Part B — Reading (MCQ)3040 minutes25%

Entirely in Bluebook (from 2027; speaking recorded in Bluebook) + PPR submitted through the AP Digital Portfolio

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Project Presentation (speaking, presentational)1 questions · 11Present the findings of the course project in response to the exam-day prompt, with a printed PPR for reference.
  • Project Q&A (speaking, interpersonal)1 questions · 9Answer 4 recorded questions about the presentation, 40 seconds per question.
  • Argumentative Essay (written)1 questions · 10An argumentative essay based on 3 sources (text, chart, audio heard twice) with differing viewpoints.

Rubric — Project Presentation — 11 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: explains 3 or more factors with relevant details, drawn from research for the project; 1 point: identifies ≥3 factors but explains them superficially, OR explains only 1–2 factors with details. 0 points if off-topic, merely restates the prompt, or is clearly copied/machine-translated/AI-generated.
Cultural Understanding0–22 points: specific examples showing the relationship between the cultural perspectives AND the products/practices of the target culture; 1 point: relevant examples but only listed/described, without explaining that relationship.
Organization0–22 points: organised with an introduction and conclusion, ideas progress logically, easy to follow throughout, with a variety of cohesive devices; 1 point: partly easy to follow, partly disjointed, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–33 points: very varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), control of a range of grammatical structures, errors do not impede understanding, self-correction improves clarity; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, solid basic grammar, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/grammar, repeated memorised phrases, English mixed in.
Delivery0–22 points: pace and intonation engage the listener, speaks fluently and confidently, clear pronunciation, the listener does not have to strain; 1 point: occasional hesitation, monotone or choppy delivery, but the presentation is sustained. Using the full time is not required.

Rubric — Project Q&A — 9 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: answers appropriately with the requested information in at least 3 of the 4 questions (minor misunderstandings allowed); 1 point: answers only 1–2 questions appropriately, the others missing/off-topic.
Cultural Understanding0–21 point: at least one answer describes a product/practice/perspective of the target culture; 2 points: at least one answer COMPARES the target culture with your own/another community, OR explains the relationship between perspectives and products/practices, with details and examples.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary and grammar, errors do not impede understanding, uses circumlocution/paraphrase when lacking a word; 2 points: adequate, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary that cannot sustain the exchange.
Fluency0–22 points: speaks fluently and naturally, with clear pronunciation and effective intonation (natural pauses are fine); 1 point: occasional hesitation, repeated fillers that break the flow.

Rubric — Argumentative Essay — 10 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Position0–1States a clear position that directly answers the prompt.
Source Use0–22 points: uses all 3 sources to defend the position, understands the source content (only minor errors), clearly identifies which source information comes from; 1 point: uses at least 2 sources, may partly misunderstand them.
Argumentation0–2Has a claim and consistently explains how the evidence supports the position.
Organization0–22 points: organises the essay around an argument (not summarising each source in turn), with an introduction and conclusion, logical transitions, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but is hard to follow in places, or summarises the sources one by one.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), a range of sentence structures, errors do not impede understanding; text copied verbatim from the sources does not count; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/structures.
Recent changes
  • NEW exam framework from the 2026–27 school year (May 2027 exam): the 2 old speaking tasks (Conversation, Cultural Comparison) and the Email Reply writing task are removed; the Argumentative Essay is kept, and a Course Project is added: students research a topic (2026–27: Unit 3 Art and Creativity, through the lens of music), submit a Personalized Project Reference (PPR) through the AP Digital Portfolio by 30 Apr 2027, and on exam day give a presentation + Q&A recorded in Bluebook. The exam moves entirely to Bluebook (no paper exam; a wired headset with microphone is required). The Course Project Packet is released in January 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 23% · 3: 33% · 2: 23% · 1: 6%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP German Language and CultureAvailable at IIG VietnamGermanabout 2 hours 30 minutes · Portfolio submission · 24% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Free ResponseQ1 Project Presentation 20%, Q2 Project Q&A 15%, Q3 Argumentative Essay 15%3Q1: 3′ preparation + 3′ presentation; Q2: 4 turns × 40″; Q3: 55′50%
Section II Part A — Listening (MCQ)2540 minutes25%
Section II Part B — Reading (MCQ)3040 minutes25%

Entirely in Bluebook (from 2027; speaking recorded in Bluebook) + PPR submitted through the AP Digital Portfolio

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Project Presentation (speaking, presentational)1 questions · 11Present the findings of the course project in response to the exam-day prompt, with a printed PPR for reference.
  • Project Q&A (speaking, interpersonal)1 questions · 9Answer 4 recorded questions about the presentation, 40 seconds per question.
  • Argumentative Essay (written)1 questions · 10An argumentative essay based on 3 sources (text, chart, audio heard twice) with differing viewpoints.

Rubric — Project Presentation — 11 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: explains 3 or more factors with relevant details, drawn from research for the project; 1 point: identifies ≥3 factors but explains them superficially, OR explains only 1–2 factors with details. 0 points if off-topic, merely restates the prompt, or is clearly copied/machine-translated/AI-generated.
Cultural Understanding0–22 points: specific examples showing the relationship between the cultural perspectives AND the products/practices of the target culture; 1 point: relevant examples but only listed/described, without explaining that relationship.
Organization0–22 points: organised with an introduction and conclusion, ideas progress logically, easy to follow throughout, with a variety of cohesive devices; 1 point: partly easy to follow, partly disjointed, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–33 points: very varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), control of a range of grammatical structures, errors do not impede understanding, self-correction improves clarity; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, solid basic grammar, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/grammar, repeated memorised phrases, English mixed in.
Delivery0–22 points: pace and intonation engage the listener, speaks fluently and confidently, clear pronunciation, the listener does not have to strain; 1 point: occasional hesitation, monotone or choppy delivery, but the presentation is sustained. Using the full time is not required.

Rubric — Project Q&A — 9 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: answers appropriately with the requested information in at least 3 of the 4 questions (minor misunderstandings allowed); 1 point: answers only 1–2 questions appropriately, the others missing/off-topic.
Cultural Understanding0–21 point: at least one answer describes a product/practice/perspective of the target culture; 2 points: at least one answer COMPARES the target culture with your own/another community, OR explains the relationship between perspectives and products/practices, with details and examples.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary and grammar, errors do not impede understanding, uses circumlocution/paraphrase when lacking a word; 2 points: adequate, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary that cannot sustain the exchange.
Fluency0–22 points: speaks fluently and naturally, with clear pronunciation and effective intonation (natural pauses are fine); 1 point: occasional hesitation, repeated fillers that break the flow.

Rubric — Argumentative Essay — 10 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Position0–1States a clear position that directly answers the prompt.
Source Use0–22 points: uses all 3 sources to defend the position, understands the source content (only minor errors), clearly identifies which source information comes from; 1 point: uses at least 2 sources, may partly misunderstand them.
Argumentation0–2Has a claim and consistently explains how the evidence supports the position.
Organization0–22 points: organises the essay around an argument (not summarising each source in turn), with an introduction and conclusion, logical transitions, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but is hard to follow in places, or summarises the sources one by one.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), a range of sentence structures, errors do not impede understanding; text copied verbatim from the sources does not count; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/structures.
Recent changes
  • NEW exam framework from the 2026–27 school year (May 2027 exam): the 2 old speaking tasks (Conversation, Cultural Comparison) and the Email Reply writing task are removed; the Argumentative Essay is kept, and a Course Project is added: students research a topic (2026–27: Unit 3 Art and Creativity, through the lens of music), submit a Personalized Project Reference (PPR) through the AP Digital Portfolio by 30 Apr 2027, and on exam day give a presentation + Q&A recorded in Bluebook. The exam moves entirely to Bluebook (no paper exam; a wired headset with microphone is required). The Course Project Packet is released in January 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 24% · 4: 17% · 3: 27% · 2: 22% · 1: 10%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Italian Language and CultureNot offered at IIGItalianabout 2 hours 30 minutes · Portfolio submission · 19% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Free ResponseQ1 Project Presentation 20%, Q2 Project Q&A 15%, Q3 Argumentative Essay 15%3Q1: 3′ preparation + 3′ presentation; Q2: 4 turns × 40″; Q3: 55′50%
Section II Part A — Listening (MCQ)2540 minutes25%
Section II Part B — Reading (MCQ)3040 minutes25%

Entirely in Bluebook (from 2027; speaking recorded in Bluebook) + PPR submitted through the AP Digital Portfolio

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Project Presentation (speaking, presentational)1 questions · 11Present the findings of the course project in response to the exam-day prompt, with a printed PPR for reference.
  • Project Q&A (speaking, interpersonal)1 questions · 9Answer 4 recorded questions about the presentation, 40 seconds per question.
  • Argumentative Essay (written)1 questions · 10An argumentative essay based on 3 sources (text, chart, audio heard twice) with differing viewpoints.

Rubric — Project Presentation — 11 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: explains 3 or more factors with relevant details, drawn from research for the project; 1 point: identifies ≥3 factors but explains them superficially, OR explains only 1–2 factors with details. 0 points if off-topic, merely restates the prompt, or is clearly copied/machine-translated/AI-generated.
Cultural Understanding0–22 points: specific examples showing the relationship between the cultural perspectives AND the products/practices of the target culture; 1 point: relevant examples but only listed/described, without explaining that relationship.
Organization0–22 points: organised with an introduction and conclusion, ideas progress logically, easy to follow throughout, with a variety of cohesive devices; 1 point: partly easy to follow, partly disjointed, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–33 points: very varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), control of a range of grammatical structures, errors do not impede understanding, self-correction improves clarity; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, solid basic grammar, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/grammar, repeated memorised phrases, English mixed in.
Delivery0–22 points: pace and intonation engage the listener, speaks fluently and confidently, clear pronunciation, the listener does not have to strain; 1 point: occasional hesitation, monotone or choppy delivery, but the presentation is sustained. Using the full time is not required.

Rubric — Project Q&A — 9 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: answers appropriately with the requested information in at least 3 of the 4 questions (minor misunderstandings allowed); 1 point: answers only 1–2 questions appropriately, the others missing/off-topic.
Cultural Understanding0–21 point: at least one answer describes a product/practice/perspective of the target culture; 2 points: at least one answer COMPARES the target culture with your own/another community, OR explains the relationship between perspectives and products/practices, with details and examples.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary and grammar, errors do not impede understanding, uses circumlocution/paraphrase when lacking a word; 2 points: adequate, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary that cannot sustain the exchange.
Fluency0–22 points: speaks fluently and naturally, with clear pronunciation and effective intonation (natural pauses are fine); 1 point: occasional hesitation, repeated fillers that break the flow.

Rubric — Argumentative Essay — 10 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Position0–1States a clear position that directly answers the prompt.
Source Use0–22 points: uses all 3 sources to defend the position, understands the source content (only minor errors), clearly identifies which source information comes from; 1 point: uses at least 2 sources, may partly misunderstand them.
Argumentation0–2Has a claim and consistently explains how the evidence supports the position.
Organization0–22 points: organises the essay around an argument (not summarising each source in turn), with an introduction and conclusion, logical transitions, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but is hard to follow in places, or summarises the sources one by one.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), a range of sentence structures, errors do not impede understanding; text copied verbatim from the sources does not count; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/structures.
Recent changes
  • NEW exam framework from the 2026–27 school year (May 2027 exam): the 2 old speaking tasks (Conversation, Cultural Comparison) and the Email Reply writing task are removed; the Argumentative Essay is kept, and a Course Project is added: students research a topic (2026–27: Unit 3 Art and Creativity, through the lens of music), submit a Personalized Project Reference (PPR) through the AP Digital Portfolio by 30 Apr 2027, and on exam day give a presentation + Q&A recorded in Bluebook. The exam moves entirely to Bluebook (no paper exam; a wired headset with microphone is required). The Course Project Packet is released in January 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 19% · 4: 22% · 3: 28% · 2: 20% · 1: 11%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Japanese Language and CultureAvailable at IIG VietnamJapaneseabout 2 hours · Portfolio submission · 47% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Free ResponseQ1 Project Presentation 20% (3′ preparation + 3′ speaking), Q2 Project Q&A 15% (4 × 40″), Q3 Story Narration 7.5%, Q4 Email Response 7.5%4Q1: 3′ preparation + 3′ presentation; Q2: 4 turns × 40″; Q3 + Q4: 30′ shared for both writing questions50%
Section II Part A — Listening (MCQ)2525 minutes25%
Section II Part B — Reading (MCQ)3040 minutes25%

Entirely in Bluebook (from 2027; speaking recorded in Bluebook) + PPR submitted through the AP Digital Portfolio

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Project Presentation (speaking, presentational)1 questions · 11Present the findings of the course project in response to the exam-day prompt, with a printed PPR for reference.
  • Project Q&A (speaking, interpersonal)1 questions · 9Answer 4 recorded questions about the presentation, 40 seconds per question.
  • Story Narration (writing)1 questions · 8Write a story based on a sequence of 4 pictures. Typed using Google Japanese IME (hiragana, katakana, kanji).
  • Email Response (written)1 questions · 8Reply to an email from a friend/community member, providing the information requested.

Rubric — Project Presentation — 11 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: explains 3 or more factors with relevant details, drawn from research for the project; 1 point: identifies ≥3 factors but explains them superficially, OR explains only 1–2 factors with details. 0 points if off-topic, merely restates the prompt, or is clearly copied/machine-translated/AI-generated.
Cultural Understanding0–22 points: specific examples showing the relationship between the cultural perspectives AND the products/practices of the target culture; 1 point: relevant examples but only listed/described, without explaining that relationship.
Organization0–22 points: organised with an introduction and conclusion, ideas progress logically, easy to follow throughout, with a variety of cohesive devices; 1 point: partly easy to follow, partly disjointed, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–33 points: very varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), control of a range of grammatical structures, errors do not impede understanding, self-correction improves clarity; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, solid basic grammar, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/grammar, repeated memorised phrases, English mixed in.
Delivery0–22 points: pace and intonation engage the listener, speaks fluently and confidently, clear pronunciation, the listener does not have to strain; 1 point: occasional hesitation, monotone or choppy delivery, but the presentation is sustained. Using the full time is not required.

Rubric — Project Q&A — 9 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: answers appropriately with the requested information in at least 3 of the 4 questions (minor misunderstandings allowed); 1 point: answers only 1–2 questions appropriately, the others missing/off-topic.
Cultural Understanding0–21 point: at least one answer describes a product/practice/perspective of the target culture; 2 points: at least one answer COMPARES the target culture with your own/another community, OR explains the relationship between perspectives and products/practices, with details and examples.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary and grammar, errors do not impede understanding, uses circumlocution/paraphrase when lacking a word; 2 points: adequate, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary that cannot sustain the exchange.
Fluency0–22 points: speaks fluently and naturally, with clear pronunciation and effective intonation (natural pauses are fine); 1 point: occasional hesitation, repeated fillers that break the flow.

Rubric — Story Narration — 8 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Narrative Development0–33 points: tells a complete story that fits and incorporates all 4 pictures, with relevant details/dialogue; 2 points: uses at least 3 pictures, with some detail; 1 point: only 1–2 pictures, or mainly describes pictures/lists words.
Organization0–22 points: easy to follow, with a clear beginning – middle – end, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but lacks clear stages.
Language Control0–3Accurate and varied vocabulary, grammar and writing.

Rubric — Email Response — 8 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Message Development0–33 points: clearly and directly answers BOTH requests for information in the email, with relevant details/examples; 2 points: addresses at least one request; 1 point: replies to the email but does not provide the requested information.
Organization0–22 points: easy to follow throughout, with a greeting and closing, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but may lack a greeting/closing, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–3Varied vocabulary and grammatical structures, including culturally appropriate expressions, with an appropriate register; errors do not impede comprehension (3 points).
Recent changes
  • NEW exam framework from the 2026–27 school year (May 2027 exam): all 4 old tasks (Text Chat, Compare and Contrast Article, Conversation, Cultural Perspective Presentation) are removed and replaced by a Course Project: students research a topic (2026–27: Unit 3 Art and Creativity, through the lens of music), submit a Personalized Project Reference (PPR) through the AP Digital Portfolio by 30 Apr 2027, and on exam day give a presentation + Q&A recorded in Bluebook. The exam moves entirely to Bluebook (no paper exam; a wired headset with microphone is required). The Course Project Packet is released in January 2027. Two NEW writing tasks for Japanese: Story Narration + Email Response (like the Chinese framework), scored with an 8-point analytic rubric.

Score distribution 2026

5: 47% · 4: 10% · 3: 15% · 2: 7% · 1: 21%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP LatinNot offered at IIGLatin3 hours · Testing in Bluebook · 20% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Multiple Choice20 discrete sight questions, short sight sets (6), short syllabus sets (6), long syllabus sets (20)521 hour 5 minutes50%
Section II — Free ResponseShort Answer 10% (~15′), Translation 10% (~15′), Short Essay 10% (~25′), 2 Project Passage essays, prose + poetry, 9% each (~30′ each); 2 in-class checkpoints scored by the teacher (5 points) = 2% of the total score51 hour 55 minutes50%

Entirely in Bluebook

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Short Answer (syllabus passage)1 questions · 86–8 short questions on a Vergil/Caesar passage from the syllabus.
  • Translation1 questions · 15Translate a syllabus passage literally into English, scored by grammatical segment.
  • Short Essay1 questions · 8Interpret the passage, quoting Latin + translating + explaining.
  • Project Passage Short Essay — Prose1 questions · 11Summarise + interpret a prose passage from the year's 4 project passages.
  • Project Passage Short Essay — Poetry1 questions · 11The same for a poetry passage.

Rubric — Short Essay — 8 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row 1–40–1 per rowCorrectly understands the passage; quotes Latin supporting the answer; correctly translates the quotation; offers an interpretation that answers the question.
Row 5: Latin citation0–2Quotes Latin of sufficient length (not just 1 word), showing accurate understanding.
Row 6: Explanation0–2Explain how the quoted Latin passage supports the interpretation.

Rubric — Project Passage Short Essay — 11 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row 1–4: Summary0–1 per rowA sentence that correctly summarises the whole passage (Row 1) and correctly summarises the beginning, middle and end of the passage (Rows 2–4).
Row 5: Interpretation0–1Gives an interpretation that directly answers the prompt.
Row 6: Latin citation and explanation — first example0–21 point: accurate Latin quotation of sufficient length (not just 1 word/short phrase out of context); 2 points: adds a satisfactory explanation of how the quotation relates to the question.
Row 7: Latin citation and explanation — second example0–2Same as Row 6, for a second Latin citation.
Row 8: Contextual or stylistic information0–21 point: accurate contextual or stylistic information relevant to the text; 2 points: explains how that information relates to the question.
Recent changes
  • Course revised from the 2025–26 school year (2026 exam): adds a Course Project with 4 project passages outside the syllabus (2 prose, 2 poetry; the list changes each year), 2 in-class checkpoints = 2% of the score; the exam has 2 FRQs on the project passages.

Score distribution 2026

5: 20% · 4: 29% · 3: 24% · 2: 17% · 1: 10%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Spanish Language and CultureNot offered at IIGSpanishabout 2 hours 30 minutes · Portfolio submission · 21% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Free ResponseQ1 Project Presentation 20%, Q2 Project Q&A 15%, Q3 Argumentative Essay 15%3Q1: 3′ preparation + 3′ presentation; Q2: 4 turns × 40″; Q3: 55′50%
Section II Part A — Listening (MCQ)2540 minutes25%
Section II Part B — Reading (MCQ)3040 minutes25%

Entirely in Bluebook (from 2027; speaking recorded in Bluebook) + PPR submitted through the AP Digital Portfolio

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Project Presentation (speaking, presentational)1 questions · 11Present the findings of the course project in response to the exam-day prompt, with a printed PPR for reference.
  • Project Q&A (speaking, interpersonal)1 questions · 9Answer 4 recorded questions about the presentation, 40 seconds per question.
  • Argumentative Essay (written)1 questions · 10An argumentative essay based on 3 sources (text, chart, audio heard twice) with differing viewpoints.

Rubric — Project Presentation — 11 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: explains 3 or more factors with relevant details, drawn from research for the project; 1 point: identifies ≥3 factors but explains them superficially, OR explains only 1–2 factors with details. 0 points if off-topic, merely restates the prompt, or is clearly copied/machine-translated/AI-generated.
Cultural Understanding0–22 points: specific examples showing the relationship between the cultural perspectives AND the products/practices of the target culture; 1 point: relevant examples but only listed/described, without explaining that relationship.
Organization0–22 points: organised with an introduction and conclusion, ideas progress logically, easy to follow throughout, with a variety of cohesive devices; 1 point: partly easy to follow, partly disjointed, limited cohesion.
Language Control0–33 points: very varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), control of a range of grammatical structures, errors do not impede understanding, self-correction improves clarity; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, solid basic grammar, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/grammar, repeated memorised phrases, English mixed in.
Delivery0–22 points: pace and intonation engage the listener, speaks fluently and confidently, clear pronunciation, the listener does not have to strain; 1 point: occasional hesitation, monotone or choppy delivery, but the presentation is sustained. Using the full time is not required.

Rubric — Project Q&A — 9 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Task Execution0–22 points: answers appropriately with the requested information in at least 3 of the 4 questions (minor misunderstandings allowed); 1 point: answers only 1–2 questions appropriately, the others missing/off-topic.
Cultural Understanding0–21 point: at least one answer describes a product/practice/perspective of the target culture; 2 points: at least one answer COMPARES the target culture with your own/another community, OR explains the relationship between perspectives and products/practices, with details and examples.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary and grammar, errors do not impede understanding, uses circumlocution/paraphrase when lacking a word; 2 points: adequate, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary that cannot sustain the exchange.
Fluency0–22 points: speaks fluently and naturally, with clear pronunciation and effective intonation (natural pauses are fine); 1 point: occasional hesitation, repeated fillers that break the flow.

Rubric — Argumentative Essay — 10 points (CED effective Fall 2026)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Position0–1States a clear position that directly answers the prompt.
Source Use0–22 points: uses all 3 sources to defend the position, understands the source content (only minor errors), clearly identifies which source information comes from; 1 point: uses at least 2 sources, may partly misunderstand them.
Argumentation0–2Has a claim and consistently explains how the evidence supports the position.
Organization0–22 points: organises the essay around an argument (not summarising each source in turn), with an introduction and conclusion, logical transitions, effective cohesion; 1 point: has structure but is hard to follow in places, or summarises the sources one by one.
Language Control0–33 points: varied vocabulary (including culturally appropriate expressions), a range of sentence structures, errors do not impede understanding; text copied verbatim from the sources does not count; 2 points: adequate vocabulary, errors occasionally impede understanding; 1 point: limited vocabulary/structures.
Recent changes
  • NEW exam framework from the 2026–27 school year (May 2027 exam): the 2 old speaking tasks (Conversation, Cultural Comparison) and the Email Reply writing task are removed; the Argumentative Essay is kept, and a Course Project is added: students research a topic (2026–27: Unit 3 Art and Creativity, through the lens of music), submit a Personalized Project Reference (PPR) through the AP Digital Portfolio by 30 Apr 2027, and on exam day give a presentation + Q&A recorded in Bluebook. The exam moves entirely to Bluebook (no paper exam; a wired headset with microphone is required). The Course Project Packet is released in January 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 21% · 4: 31% · 3: 31% · 2: 14% · 1: 3%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Spanish Literature and CultureNot offered at IIGSpanish Literature and Culture3 hours · Testing in Bluebook · 20% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I Part A — Interpretive Listening (MCQ)3 authentic audio sources: an interview, a poem reading, a presentation1520 minutes10%
Section I Part B — Reading Analysis (MCQ)6 sets of 7–10 questions501 hour40%
Section II — Free Response2 short answers (suggested 15 minutes each) + 2 essays (suggested 35 minutes each)41 hour 40 minutes50%

Entirely in Bluebook

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Short Answer — Text Explanation1 questions · 6Identify the author/period of a passage from the reading list and explain how a theme is developed.
  • Short Answer — Text and Art Comparison1 questions · 6Compare a theme across a text and a work of art.
  • Essay — Analysis of Single Text1 questions · 10Analyse how a text reflects a period/movement/genre/technique and its cultural context.
  • Essay — Text Comparison1 questions · 10Compare how 2 texts develop a theme.

Rubric — Short Answer — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Content1–3Explain the theme with relevant evidence from the text, correctly identifying the author/period.
Language1–3Appropriate, generally accurate and varied Spanish.

Rubric — Essay — 10 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Content1–5Question 3: explain (not just summarise) how the text reflects the genre's characteristics and its historical/cultural/social context; Question 4: analyse the effect of the literary devices both authors use to develop the given theme. A 5 requires a clear argument and relevant evidence.
Language1–5Appropriate language, mostly accurate and varied; helps the reader understand.
Recent changes
  • Not part of the 2026–27 revision of the 6 modern language subjects (no course project/PPR; the assessment page has no portfolio deadline); the 2027 exam is fully digital in Bluebook. Note: the 'How Are AP Exams Administered?' page marks this subject with * (AP Digital Portfolio submission) — this contradicts the assessment page and is likely an error on that page.

Score distribution 2026

5: 20% · 4: 23% · 3: 28% · 2: 20% · 1: 9%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

Arts 5 subjects

AP Art HistoryNot offered at IIGArt History3 hours · Testing in Bluebook · 15% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Multiple ChoiceSets of 2–3 questions based on images of works + discrete questions (with/without images)801 hour50%
Section II — Free ResponseSuggested timing: Q1 35′, Q2 25′ (1 hour in total for the 2 long questions); Q3–Q6 15′ each62 hours50%

Entirely in Bluebook (digital since 2026)

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Long Essay — Comparison1 questions · 8Compare the given work with a work of your choice (identify, describe, compare using visual + contextual evidence).
  • Long Essay — Visual/Contextual Analysis1 questions · 6Choose one work (from the list in the prompt or another work from the content area the prompt specifies; no images) and argue with a thesis.
  • Short Essay — Visual Analysis1 questions · 5Describe and analyse the form of a work OUTSIDE the image set (250 required works), with an image provided; connect it to traditions/styles.
  • Short Essay — Contextual Analysis1 questions · 5Analyse the context of a work IN the image set (image provided): how the context shaped artistic choices/meaning.
  • Short Essay — Attribution1 questions · 5Attribute an artist/culture/style to a work outside the image set (image provided), justified with visual evidence.
  • Short Essay — Continuity and Change1 questions · 5Explain how the work in the image set (with images) shows continuity or change relative to a related artistic tradition/style/practice.

Rubric — Q2 Long Essay Visual/Contextual Analysis — 6 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Identification0–1Correctly gives ≥2 identifiers (title, artist/culture, date, materials) beyond the information in the prompt.
Row B: Claim/Thesis0–1Makes a defensible art-historical claim/thesis that establishes a line of reasoning (not just restating the prompt).
Row C: Evidence0–21 point: 1 specific piece of visual or contextual evidence; 2 points: 2 specific pieces of evidence relevant to the question.
Row D: Analysis and Reasoning0–1Explains how the evidence supports the argument.
Row E: Complexity0–1Complex understanding: uses evidence to corroborate/qualify/modify the claim, noting nuance or other viewpoints.

Rubric — Q1 Long Essay Comparison — 8 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
A: Identify0–1Identifies the chosen work with ≥2 accurate identifiers.
B: Describe0–2Each point: correctly describe 1 visual characteristic of the given work (1) and of the chosen work (1).
C: Explain similarities/differences0–2Each point: use visual evidence from both works to explain a similarity/difference.
D: Claim + contextual evidence0–31 point: states a claim explaining a similarity/difference in meaning (e.g. how human figures express cultural beliefs); +1 point: specific contextual evidence for the given work; +1 point: specific contextual evidence for the chosen work.

Rubric — Q3–Q6 Short Essays — 5 points/question

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Tasks as specified in the prompt0–5Each task in the question (describe, explain using visual/contextual evidence…) is worth 1–2 separate points.
Recent changes
  • Fully digital in Bluebook from the 2026 exam (the 2026 exam is marked 'originally administered digitally').

Score distribution 2026

5: 15% · 4: 25% · 3: 27% · 2: 24% · 1: 9%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Music TheoryNot offered at IIGMusic Theoryabout 2 hours 40 minutes · Bluebook + handwritten free response · 18% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I — Multiple Choice41–43 questions with audio (aural) + 32–34 questions analysing printed music (non-aural)75about 1 hour 20 minutes45%
Section II Part A — written Free Response2 melodic dictations + 2 harmonic dictations (Q1–Q4 about 25 minutes), 1 figured bass part-writing, 1 Roman numeral part-writing, 1 harmonizing a melody (Q5–Q7 together 45 minutes)7about 1 hour 10 minutes45%
Section II Part B — Sight-Singing75 seconds to look over/practise + 30 seconds to sing each melody; recorded in Bluebook2about 10 minutes10%

Hybrid digital (new from 2027): MCQ + audio + sight-singing recording in Bluebook; FRQ prompts and sight-singing melodies printed in a paper booklet, with FRQ answers handwritten in the booklet

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Melodic Dictation (9 points per question)2 questions · 9Write down a melody heard 3–4 times (pitch + rhythm).
  • Harmonic Dictation (24 points per question)2 questions · 24Write down the soprano + bass pitches (1 point/note, up to 16) and the Roman + Arabic numeral chord symbols (1 point/chord, up to 8).
  • Part-Writing from Figured Bass1 questions · 25Four-part writing from figured bass.
  • Part-Writing from Roman Numerals1 questions · 18Four-part writing from a Roman numeral progression.
  • Harmonizing a Melody1 questions · 9Choose chords + bass for the melody, ending with a correct cadence.
  • Sight-Singing2 questionsSight-sing 2 melodies.

Rubric — Melodic Dictation — 9 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Regular scoring guide0–8 (+1)1 point for each segment (half-measure) correct in BOTH pitch and rhythm, up to 8; if at least 1 segment is correct, add 1 (a perfect answer = 9, but 9 is not given if the number of beats in a measure is wrong).
Alternate scoring guides (when the regular score is below 4)maximum 4 or 2Whichever is higher: ½ point per segment with correct pitch (up to 4) OR ¼ point per segment with correct rhythm (up to 2); no bonus point; fractional scores are rounded by a specific rule.

Rubric — Part-writing (Q5/Q6)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Chord spelling, spacing, doublingby chordA chord that fails the conditions = 0 points, and the voice-leading points into and out of that chord are lost too.
Voice leading2 points per correct chord pair2 points for each connection between two correctly spelled chords if the voice leading is acceptable; consecutive parallel 5ths/8ves or contrary 5ths/8ves = 0 points. If all chords are correct with no voice-leading errors but the soprano leaps a lot: 12 points (Q5 ≤6 leaps, Q6 ≤5) or 11 points (more).

Rubric — Harmonizing a Melody — 9 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Phrase scoringPhrase 2 up to 2; phrases 3–4 up to 3 eachEach phrase is scored and the scores are added: phrase 2 up to 2, phrases 3 and 4 up to 3 each; a phrase scoring 3 must have a good cadence (phrase 4 must be a perfect authentic cadence); using only half notes caps the score at 2. An additional 1 point may be added for a very good answer (maximum total 9).
Recent changes
  • 2027: moving to hybrid digital (previously a paper exam + recorded sight-singing). Music Theory has a 'special score structure' (aural/non-aural subscores) according to the score scale page.

Score distribution 2026

5: 18% · 4: 17% · 3: 24% · 2: 26% · 1: 15%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP 2-D Art and DesignNot offered at IIG2-D Art and Design (portfolio)Full academic year · Portfolio submission · 12% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Sustained Investigation15 digital images (works + process) + responses to 2 writing prompts: inquiry; development through practice, experimentation, revision——60%
Selected Works5 works (5 images) + written evidence: ideas, materials, processes; image/idea sources cited (image citations)——40%

Portfolio submitted via AP Digital Portfolio (no written exam)

Not applicable

Rubric — Sustained Investigation — 4 rows, each 1–3 (60% of the score)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Inquiry1–3The writing identifies an inquiry (an exploration, not just a topic), the images show the inquiry, and the inquiry guides the whole sustained investigation.
Row B: Practice, Experimentation, and Revision1–3Both the images and the writing show practice – experimentation – revision linked to the inquiry.
Row C: Materials, Processes, and Ideas1–3The visual relationships among materials, processes and ideas are clear and reach the level of synthesis; the writing is not scored in this row.
Row D: 2-D/3-D/Drawing Skills1–3Works show good → advanced (highly developed) skill throughout.

Rubric — Selected Works — holistic 1–5 (40% of the score)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
A. Written Evidencetrong 1–5The writing identifies materials, processes and ideas; if not all are identified, the maximum is 2.
B. Skillstrong 1–5Evidence of 2-D/3-D/Drawing skills at an advanced level.
C. Materials, Processes, and Ideastrong 1–5The visual relationships among materials – processes – ideas demonstrate synthesis.
Recent changes
  • 2026–27: the AP Art and Design AI policy has been updated (see AP Central). The portfolio consists of 3 components submitted as final by 7 May 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 12% · 4: 30% · 3: 43% · 2: 12% · 1: 3%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP 3-D Art and DesignNot offered at IIG3-D Art and Design (portfolio)Full academic year · Portfolio submission · 7% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Sustained Investigation15 digital images (works + process) + responses to 2 writing prompts: inquiry; development through practice, experimentation, revision——60%
Selected Works5 works × 2 views = 10 images + written evidence: ideas, materials, processes; image/idea sources cited (image citations)——40%

Portfolio submitted via AP Digital Portfolio (no written exam)

Not applicable

Rubric — Sustained Investigation — 4 rows, each 1–3 (60% of the score)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Inquiry1–3The writing identifies an inquiry (an exploration, not just a topic), the images show the inquiry, and the inquiry guides the whole sustained investigation.
Row B: Practice, Experimentation, and Revision1–3Both the images and the writing show practice – experimentation – revision linked to the inquiry.
Row C: Materials, Processes, and Ideas1–3The visual relationships among materials, processes and ideas are clear and reach the level of synthesis; the writing is not scored in this row.
Row D: 2-D/3-D/Drawing Skills1–3Works show good → advanced (highly developed) skill throughout.

Rubric — Selected Works — holistic 1–5 (40% of the score)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
A. Written Evidencetrong 1–5The writing identifies materials, processes and ideas; if not all are identified, the maximum is 2.
B. Skillstrong 1–5Evidence of 2-D/3-D/Drawing skills at an advanced level.
C. Materials, Processes, and Ideastrong 1–5The visual relationships among materials – processes – ideas demonstrate synthesis.
Recent changes
  • 2026–27: the AP Art and Design AI policy has been updated (see AP Central). The portfolio consists of 3 components submitted as final by 7 May 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 7% · 4: 25% · 3: 43% · 2: 23% · 1: 2%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP DrawingNot offered at IIGDrawing (portfolio)Full academic year · Portfolio submission · 16% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Sustained Investigation15 digital images (works + process) + responses to 2 writing prompts: inquiry; development through practice, experimentation, revision——60%
Selected Works5 works (5 images) + written evidence: ideas, materials, processes; image/idea sources cited (image citations)——40%

Portfolio submitted via AP Digital Portfolio (no written exam)

Not applicable

Rubric — Sustained Investigation — 4 rows, each 1–3 (60% of the score)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row A: Inquiry1–3The writing identifies an inquiry (an exploration, not just a topic), the images show the inquiry, and the inquiry guides the whole sustained investigation.
Row B: Practice, Experimentation, and Revision1–3Both the images and the writing show practice – experimentation – revision linked to the inquiry.
Row C: Materials, Processes, and Ideas1–3The visual relationships among materials, processes and ideas are clear and reach the level of synthesis; the writing is not scored in this row.
Row D: 2-D/3-D/Drawing Skills1–3Works show good → advanced (highly developed) skill throughout.

Rubric — Selected Works — holistic 1–5 (40% of the score)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
A. Written Evidencetrong 1–5The writing identifies materials, processes and ideas; if not all are identified, the maximum is 2.
B. Skillstrong 1–5Evidence of 2-D/3-D/Drawing skills at an advanced level.
C. Materials, Processes, and Ideastrong 1–5The visual relationships among materials – processes – ideas demonstrate synthesis.
Recent changes
  • 2026–27: the AP Art and Design AI policy has been updated (see AP Central). The portfolio consists of 3 components submitted as final by 7 May 2027.

Score distribution 2026

5: 16% · 4: 31% · 3: 36% · 2: 14% · 1: 3%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Capstone 2 subjects

AP SeminarNot offered at IIGSeminar — research and argumentation2-hour end-of-course exam · Portfolio submission · 10% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Performance Task 1 — Team Project and PresentationIndividual Research Report of 1,200 words (scored by CB) + Team Multimedia Presentation & Defense of 8–10 minutes (scored by the teacher); teams of 3–5 students——20%
Performance Task 2 — Individual Research-Based Essay and PresentationIndividual Written Argument of 2,000 words (scored by CB) + a 6–8 minute Presentation + an Oral Defense of 2 questions (scored by the teacher)——35%
End-of-Course ExamPart A: 3 short-answer questions analysing the argument of 1 source; Part B: 1 synthesis essay using 4 sources on the same topic42 hours (Part A ~30′, Part B ~90′)45%

Performance tasks submitted via AP Digital Portfolio + an end-of-course exam taken entirely in Bluebook

Not applicable

Free-response question types

  • Part A — Short Answer (3 questions)3 questions · 15A1 identify the argument/thesis (3), A2 explain the line of reasoning (6), A3 evaluate the effectiveness of the evidence (6).
  • Part B — Evidence-Based Argument Essay1 questions · 24Build your own argument from the common topic of the 4 sources.

Rubric — EOC Part B — 24 points (4 rows × 0/2/4/6)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Row 1: Establish Argument (theme/perspective)0–66 points: identifies a theme/issue connecting the sources and a perspective not found in any single source, OR an insightful approach, OR strong thematic connections between perspectives; 4 points: has a theme connecting the sources but the perspective comes from only one source.
Row 2: Establish Argument (line of reasoning)0–6A line of reasoning organized logically, with claims connected to each other leading to the conclusion.
Row 3: Select and Use Evidence0–66 points: synthesises relevant information from at least 2 of the provided sources to build a convincing argument; 4 points: accurately uses information from ≥2 sources to support the argument; 2 points: restates/misunderstands source information.
Row 4: Apply Conventions0–66 points: writes clearly, integrates source material into the argument effectively and cites sources accurately; 4 points: generally clear, with minor errors, sources cited accurately.

Rubric — EOC Part A — 15 points

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
A1 Argument, main idea, or thesis0–3Accurately identifies the author's main claim.
A2 Explain line of reasoning0–6Explain how the claims connect to each other.
A3 Evaluate effectiveness of the evidence0–6Evaluates the relevance/credibility/sufficiency of the evidence, with specific examples.

Score distribution 2026

5: 10% · 4: 21% · 3: 57% · 2: 10% · 1: 2%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP ResearchNot offered at IIGResearch — individual research projectFull academic year · Portfolio submission · 17% scored 5

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Academic Paper4,000–5,000 words, scored by AP Readers——75%
Presentation and Oral DefensePresentation + answering 3–4 questions; teacher and panel score with a standard rubric—15–20 minutes25%

Performance tasks: academic paper submitted via AP Digital Portfolio; presentation + oral defense before the teacher (no written exam)

Not applicable

Rubric — Academic Paper — holistic 1–5

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Score 1: Report on Existing Knowledge1Topics that are too broad; merely summarising existing knowledge; a search-and-report process.
Score 2: Report with Simplistic Use of a Research Method2Narrowed but not throughout; the method is not replicable/oversimplified.
Score 3: Ineffectual Argument for a New Understanding3New understanding/conclusion but the argument is underdeveloped or lacks evidence; the method is reasonably replicable.
Score 4: Well-Supported, Articulate Argument Conveying a New Understanding4Clear scope, connects multiple scholarly perspectives and identifies a gap, defends the method in detail, with sufficient reasoning + evidence.
Score 5: Rich Analysis of a New Understanding Addressing a Gap5As level 4, plus explains the limitations of the conclusions + implications for the research community; presentation and citations almost error-free.

Score distribution 2026

5: 17% · 4: 31% · 3: 42% · 2: 8% · 1: 2%

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP Career Kickstart (new) 2 subjects

AP Business with Personal FinanceAvailable at IIG VietnamNew subject · first exam May 2027Business with Personal Finance2 hours 40 minutes · Testing in Bluebook

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceUsually in sets of 3–4 questions with accompanying material (summaries, charts, financial statements, job descriptions); 20–25% of questions are on personal finance.6070 minutes60%
Section II Part A: Business Canvas Project Exam-Day ValidationPitch a product idea, explain how hypothesis testing is used to make decisions, and analyse a feasibility challenge.125 minutes15%
Section II Part B: FRQ 2–4Q2 Personal Finance (5%), Q3 Business Concept Application (5%), Q4 Business Decision (15%).365 minutes25%

Fully in Bluebook; FRQ 1 assesses the Business Canvas Project completed during the year.

Calculators allowed (per the AP Exams Calculator Policy).

Free-response question types

  • Q1 Business Canvas Project Exam-Day Validation1 questions · 10Questions about the student's own project.
  • Q2 Personal Finance1 questions · 3Read household financial data and propose how to reach a goal.
  • Q3 Business Concept Application1 questions · 3Interpret business data for a strategic plan.
  • Q4 Business Decision1 questions · 8Set criteria, compare 2 options (financial + non-financial) and give a reasoned recommendation.
Recent changes
  • 2026-27: New course on AP Central, exam scheduled for 4 May 2027; no past exams/score distributions yet. The course ends with a Financial Advisor Project (not scored on the exam).

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

AP CybersecurityAvailable at IIG VietnamNew subject · first exam May 2027Cybersecurity2 hours 10 minutes · Testing in Bluebook

Exam structure

SectionNumber of questionsTimeWeighting
Section I: Multiple ChoiceDiscrete questions and sets of 2–4 questions; analysing scenarios and numerical evidence (logs…) to identify vulnerabilities, recommend measures and detect attacks.6080 minutes70%
Section II: Free ResponseOne question with multiple sources from the same device: firewall rules, system/application logs, file listings and permissions, device policy.150 minutes30%

Fully in Bluebook.

Free-response question types

  • Device Security Analysis1 questions · 14Explain policies, find signs of attack in logs, configure file permissions (e.g. the chmod command) and firewalls, and recommend ways to harden devices. (14 points per the CED sample question.)

Rubric — Device Security Analysis — 14 points (CED sample question)

Scoring rowScoreEarns the point when
Each sub-part (Part A–E, i–iv)0–11 point per sub-part; requires an accurate explanation/identification (e.g. the correct IP, a valid chmod command, the correct attack type) based on the sources given.
Recent changes
  • 2026-27: New course on AP Central, exam scheduled for 5 May 2027; no past exams/score distributions published yet. 5 units: Introduction to Security; Securing Spaces; Securing Networks; Securing Devices; Securing Applications and Data. Skills: Analyze Risk, Mitigate Risk, Detect Attacks (each 25–40% of the MCQ section), Collaborate (with people and AI).

Official College Board exams and documents original PDF — click to view on this page

Exam structures, rubrics and document links are taken from the College Board's AP Central and AP Students (Course and Exam Description, scoring guidelines, Chief Reader Report). Exams and documents open directly from College Board servers; copyright belongs to the College Board. Updated 07/10/2026.

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AP Calculus AB · 8 unit
  • 1. Limits and Continuity10–12%
  • 2. Differentiation: Definition and Fundamental Properties10–12%
  • 3. Differentiation: Composite, Implicit, and Inverse Functions9–13%
  • 4. Contextual Applications of Differentiation10–15%
  • 5. Analytical Applications of Differentiation15–18%
  • 6. Integration and Accumulation of Change17–20%
Study by unit, with the right weighting
Unit 2 · Derivative rules · Question 7/12

If f(x) = x³ − 6x, at what value(s) of x does f have a horizontal tangent line?

A. x = 0
B. x = ±√2 ✓
C. x = ±√6
D. x = 2
Solution f′(x) = 3x² − 6 = 0 ⇒ x² = 2 ⇒ x = ±√2.
Practice each question type, with worked solutions
Section I · Part A · No calculatorRemaining 38:12
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30 questions · 60 min — exactly Part A of the real test

Timed mock tests in the exact format
Accuracy by unit
U1
U2
U3
U4
U5
U6
U7
U8

Units 4 and 6 below 60% → the teacher assigns catch-up work

Report by unit — see where your gaps are
  1. 1Entry test
  2. 2Study by unit
  3. 3Practice by question type
  4. 4Timed mock tests
  5. 5Teachers mark free responses by the rubric

See the AP practice platform →

What makes AP at 8020 different

Specialised-school foundation

The academic team comes from the math-specialist programmes of Lê Hồng Phong High School for the Gifted and the High School for the Gifted (VNU-HCM) — First Prize in the City Math competition, First Prize in the National Student Physics Olympiad.

Teachers who studied and work at top schools

PhD from Carnegie Mellon (USA) — the No. 1 university in the US for Computer Science — formerly at Amazon; PhD in Mathematics from the University of Klagenfurt (Austria); Master's from TU Munich (Germany). Each subject is taught by someone trained in that exact field.

E-learning that follows the exam closely

18 AP subjects, 4.987 practice questions organised by the College Board's units and weightings, 72 timed mock tests with the exact number of questions and minutes for each section.

Exclusive tests

Every question is written by 8020 teachers following the Course and Exam Description — not copied from released exams, so the mock tests at 8020 are ones students have never seen anywhere else.

AP teachers and test scores

Our international-programme teachers hold PhDs and Master's degrees in the very subject they teach.

Nguyễn Anh Huy — 8020
Nguyễn Anh Huy
PhD, Carnegie Mellon (USA)
Teaches: Computer Science · Maths

Computer Science, at the #1-ranked US university for the field · 10 years living and working in the US, including time at Amazon · alumnus of the specialised Maths programme at Lê Hồng Phong

Nguyễn Phước Trường — 8020
Nguyễn Phước Trường
PhD in Mathematics · University of Klagenfurt (Austria)
Teaches: Maths

PhD with distinction · Master's with distinction, top 4% of the Faculty of Mathematics, Masaryk University (Czech Republic) · Bachelor's with distinction, top 2 in the Faculty of Mathematics, Ho Chi Minh City University of Education

Phạm Trung Hiếu — 8020
Phạm Trung Hiếu
Master's, TU Munich (Germany) · IELTS 8.0
Teaches: Physics · Maths

Phổ thông Năng khiếu (High School for the Gifted, VNU-HCM) · Deutschlandstipendium and Odon Vallet scholarships · First Prize, National Student Physics Olympiad

Trương Đình Huy — 8020
Trương Đình Huy
Master of Business Administration, Western Sydney · AP Economics
Teaches: Economics · Business

Lecturer in Microeconomics and Macroeconomics at the University of Economics Ho Chi Minh City, HUTECH and Ho Chi Minh City University of Industry and Trade · AI and project management trainer at Viettel

Trần Hoàn Vũ — 8020
Trần Hoàn Vũ
Master's, Ho Chi Minh City University of Education · AP Math
Teaches: Math · Statistics

Graduation thesis awarded Distinction · alumnus of the specialised Math class at Lê Hồng Phong · teaches Calculus and Statistics to AP students

Meet the full 8020 teaching team →

What 8020's AP students say

Screenshots of messages reporting College Board scores, names hidden. Quotes kept word for word. Click an image to enlarge.

AP Calculus BC · 5 — result photos of 8020 students
AP Calculus BC · 5Calculus AB Subscore 5con gửi thầy ạ — con cảm ơn thầy và trung tâm nhiều nhé ạI'm sending this to you, teacher — thank you so much to you and the centre1-on-1 students, reporting scores via Zalo
AP Microeconomics · 5 — result photos of 8020 students
AP Microeconomics · 5AP Microeconomics prep class group chatem được 5 Micro rồi ạ, em cảm ơn anh chị và trung tâm ạI got a 5 in Micro, thank you to the teachers and the centreGroup-class students, reporting scores in the class group chat
AP Calculus BC · 5 — result photos of 8020 students
AP Calculus BC · 5Calculus AB Subscore 5con được 5 rồi thầy ạ, con cảm ơn thầyI got a 5, teacher, thank youStudents report their scores as soon as the College Board releases them
Calculus BC 5 · Microeconomics 5 — result photos of 8020 students
Calculus BC 5 · Microeconomics 5Two subjects in the same exam slotCollege Board score pages of our students
AP Chemistry · 5 — result photos of 8020 students
AP Chemistry · 52026 score on College BoardE có điểm AP rồi nhé cI got my AP score, sisStudent reports score via Messenger
AP Psychology · 4 — result photos of 8020 students
AP Psychology · 4Parent reports score in the class chatCám ơn thông tin của em & cám ơn thầy cô đã đồng hành cùng con nheThanks for the news & thank you, teachers, for supporting my childParent of an AP Psychology student
AP Calculus AB · 5 — result photos of 8020 students
AP Calculus AB · 52026 score on College Board1-on-1 student, sent a screenshot of the score page
AP season 2026 — result photos of 8020 students
AP season 2026The 5s that 8020 students reported8020 students' AP scores at a glance

AP levels at 8020

Taught unit by unit as set out by College Board, covering both MCQ + FRQ. FRQs are hand-scored against the rubric. Other subjects are available as one-on-one tutoring.

Group class

  • AP by subjectCalculus AB/BC · Chemistry · Biology · Statistics · Physics · Microeconomics · Macroeconomics · Psychology · Computer Science AOnline

Private tutoring

  • One-on-one tutoring · all AP subjectsA personalised study plan, built around the student's scheduleOnline

AP FAQ

Can students at Vietnamese schools take AP exams?

Yes. AP does not require taking AP classes at school. The College Board authorises test centres in Hanoi, Ho Chi Minh City and Da Nang run by IIG Vietnam: register and pay on IIG's portal, then also register on My AP. The College Board's exam ordering deadline is 13 November of the year before the exam — test centres usually close earlier, so get started in September–October.

How many AP subjects should you take?

8020 recommends 2–9 subjects spread across Grades 10, 11 and 12, depending on your intended major and your capacity. A 4–5 in a few subjects relevant to your major is worth more than 2–3 in many. See the suggestions by major in the Choosing subjects by major section above.

Which grade should you start in?

Grade 10 with an introductory subject such as Precalculus, Psychology, Human Geography, Environmental Science or Computer Science Principles. Heavier subjects like Calculus, Chemistry and Physics are best left to Grade 11, once your math is solid.

Can AP replace IELTS or SAT?

No. The three tests measure three different things: IELTS/TOEFL is the language requirement, the SAT is general ability, and AP is subject depth. Strong applications usually have all three; AP is what helps you stand out among applicants with similar SAT scores.

What AP score earns college credit?

It depends on the university and subject: 4 or 5 is most common, some universities accept 3, and a few top universities only use AP for placement. Look up the exact universities you are targeting with the College Board's AP Credit Policy Search tool.

How are AP exams scored?

The multiple-choice section is machine-scored, and the free-response section is scored by readers using the scoring guidelines (rubric). The two sections are weighted into a composite score, then converted to the 1–5 scale. The conversion cut-offs change every year and the College Board does not publish them in advance — so the surest approach is to hit every scoring row of the rubric.

Where can I find past AP exams?

College Board releases the free-response section every year with scoring guidelines, scored sample responses and the Chief Reader Report. This page links to the originals for each subject in the AP Subjects section — click a subject to open it.

Paper-based or computer-delivered?

From the 2027 exams, every AP subject is taken in the Bluebook app. Most subjects are taken entirely on a computer; Calculus, Precalculus, Chemistry, Biology and the Physics subjects have multiple choice on the computer and handwritten free responses in a paper answer booklet. The format for each subject is listed in the AP Subjects section.

When do scores come out, and how do I send them to universities?

Scores are released in early July in your College Board account (2025: 7 July, 2026: 6 July). Each year you can send scores to one university free of charge if you choose it by 20 June; each additional report costs 15 USD. You can cancel a score (free) or withhold a score from one university (10 USD).

Are 8020's free books enough for self-study?

The books follow the College Board units exactly, with theory, worked examples and practice exercises with solutions — enough to review the foundations on your own. Free responses need someone to mark them against the rubric; that is where a teacher helps most.

How does AP study work at 8020?

Online group classes for subjects with many students, and 1-on-1 tutoring for every AP subject on the student's schedule. Start with a free entry test to see which units you have gaps in, then get matched with a teacher in the right specialism.

Articles about AP · 16 posts

The articles below are currently available in Vietnamese only.

View the full 8020 blog →

Not sure where to start with AP?

Take the free placement test and 8020 will pinpoint your gaps and place you in the right class with the right teacher. A practice area for each subject: a question bank by chapter, plus timed mock tests.

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